There is obviously a lot of room for opinions on when the death penalty is the only effective way to defend others. But it is clear that using the death penalty for reasons other than protecting human lives is against the Church’s teaching.
I’ll draw your attention to the wording of the Catechism of Trent I cited above: “Now the punishments inflicted by the civil authority, which is the
legitimate avenger of crime, naturally tend to this end, since they give security to life by repressing outrage and violence.”
That statement is
FALSE if the death penalty can only be used by the State for protecting human life. Read it carefully, it says that avenging crime represses outrage and violence, and that inflicting punishments (including the death penalty) towards those goals are the legitimate right of civil authority.
Likewise, saying that “it is reserved to the public authority to deprive the criminal of the benefit of life, when already, by his crime, he has deprived himself of the right to live.” (Pope Piue XII, 1952) also
cannot** be true** if the criminal’s right to live is based on his future threat rather than the crime for which he has already been convicted.
Is it your position that the Church has nothing to say about the morality of a State’s application of the death penalty?
My position has been made clear, repeatedly, where you are quite frankly stonewalling on an uncomfortable question about a core presumption of your position. Is it your position that the Church has modified its understanding of Natural Law to restrict the authority of the state on that matter at some point after 1952, and if so, where has it formally declared that background framework to have been so changed? We cannot decide what can or cannot be carried by the cart before clarifying the capabilities of the horse pulling it, and it is simply not sufficient to base such conjecture on an “if” and a “should” that themselves involve scientific determinations or other decisions which the Church itself has declared fall outside of its competence.
Is it your position that executing people for jaywalking is allowable? Or that executing a group of three people because at least one of them committed a crime is allowable? Or that executing political prisoners is allowable? If you think those applications are not moral, where does the authority to declare those things immoral come from?
When a state’s use of the death penalty itself becomes an outrage, that would be in violation of the mandate of the state. There are some limitations already, (some outlined in the broader context of the sources I cited in post 46) but they are things that spring from natural law (e.g. the standard of an “eye for an eye” as a *maximum *penalty that could legitimately be assessed) that have been
ratified by the Church rather than falling under the authority of the Church to actually legislate.
But one cannot make a claim that the state is no longer the legitimate avenger of crime (inclusive of inflicting the death penalty), or that the criminals right to life cannot deprived on the basis of their crime alone, without saying either the Catechism of Trent and/or Pope Pius XII were wrong about the authority of the state under Natural Law.