S
sola_scriptura
Guest
It isn’t really scripture where I derive this idea from, since scripture never clarifies how God reaches His elective determinations. Foreknowledge is spoken of – “those whom He foreknew He also predestined” – and the only other verse in scripture that sheds any light on this is:Foreknowledge only precedes providence from your perspective in time.
Your view must ignore the explicit intructions in scripture that tell us which actions and beliefs are required for us to be obedient.
“ Before I formed you in the womb I knew you;
Before you were born I sanctified you;
I ordained you a prophet to the nations.” (Jeremiah 1:5)
So the foreknowledge spoken of here is actual knowledge (the word “knew” used here is from the Hebrew Yada` which means know or knew as we naturally understand the word, see Strong’s 03045). The obvious question is how does God knows us in this intimate way before our birth?
The real decisive factor is whether God’s elective choices are based on something we do (a positive response to grace) or is a unilateral choice made by God for His own reasons in accordance with His own will and good pleasure (that we are not made privy to)? Scripture overwhelmingly supports the latter idea, for example:
Yet, before the twins were born or had done anything good or bad—in order that God’s purpose in election might stand: not by works but by him who calls—she was told, “The older will serve the younger.” Just as it is written: “Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated.” (Romans 9:11-13)
Paul goes on:
It does not, therefore, depend on man’s desire or effort, but on God’s mercy. For the Scripture says to Pharaoh: “I raised you up for this very purpose, that I might display my power in you and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth.” Therefore God has mercy on whom he wants to have mercy, and he hardens whom he wants to harden. (Romans 9:16-18)
Again, IMO that view (which I formerly agreed with) is not in accord with either scripture or reality. It simply cannot be denied that some people have a much higher statistical chance at faith in Christ than others. Paul gives us one such example:We both agree on the necessity of grace. I believe that God gave all humans the ability to use this grace because he loves us. I believe he knows who will(already has) accept his grace. These are the chosen.
How, then, can they call on the one they have not believed in? And how can they believe in the one of whom they have not heard? And how can they hear without someone preaching to them? (Romans 10:14)
Now it sounds nice to say those who are ignorant to Christ will be perhaps afforded another opportunity or will be judged in a different way, but is that really scriptural?
Whoever believes in him is not condemned, but whoever does not believe stands condemned already because he has not believed in the name of God’s one and only Son. (John 3:18)
Obviously no one can deny that there have been billions of people since the resurrection who have lived and died without ever hearing the Gospel message. So we are told that you must hear the word to have faith, and those without faith are condemned.
I’m sure you know that John 3:18 is one of dozens of examples enumerating the absolute necessity of faith in Jesus Christ. Nowhere in scripture is there any clear (or even inferred) indication that those who did not hear the word will be spared in some way. Unbelievers are always given harsh treatment in scripture with no qualification. So if what you say is true it really would be at the mercy of God and by His secret will that has simply not been revealed to us.
I’m not sure why you would say this? You’ll have to elaborate on this a bit. I need to post the rest of my response in a new post (my character length went over the limit).All instructions urging obedience, perseverence, prayer, etc. would be meaningless unless we were expected to follow.