The text of the Old Testament did not remain oral. The holy Spirit preserved the message for generations to come.
OK. So, you’re claiming that the Holy Spirit was actively engaged in the activity of “inspiration” across generations and generations? That claim is quite different than the one that the Church makes, which is that inspiration happens
in the act of getting the text written.
So, (and I’m sorry for belaboring the point, but it’s important (I think) in understanding your claim about ‘oral tradition’): are you asserting that there never was anything that we can call “oral tradition” about the narratives that later became the Old Testament? That is, are you asserting that the Holy Spirit supernaturally protected everything that became the text of the OT, from the time that it was first told orally until the time that it was put down in writing? (That would make your claim consistent, at least.) Is that what you’re claiming?
tgGodsway:
Most of the traditions in the CC came centuries after the events.
Not true. But, let’s look at your examples:
tgGodsway:
the Apostle Paul taught that all men were born sinners. Yet centuries later the CC desired Mary was born sinless.
Actually, that’s not the claim that Paul is making. It seems that you’re quoting Romans 3:23 here. Let’s see what he actually says:
all, both Jews and Greeks, are under the power of sin… For there is no distinction; since all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God. (Romans 3:9, 22-23)
In the original Greek, we have “
Ἰουδαίους τε καὶ Ἕλληνας πάντας ὑφ’ ἁμαρτίαν εἶναι”, which translates literally as “Jews and Greeks – every part – are under sin”. Moreover, in verse 23, we see what “under sin” means: again, we see that
πάντες (‘all parts’) – “have sinned and fallen short”.
What Paul is doing here is comparing two
systems, and pointing out that there’s not one system that is free of sin. So, yes: both systems – the one with the Mosaic covenant and the one with Jesus’ new covenant – have to deal with sin.
Does that mean that the Catholic Church “changed” what Paul taught? Of course not! The Church
still believes that teaching! To say, however, that there are people who have not sinned doesn’t nullify Paul’s teaching. Think about it – it’s common sense! Have babies who die in childbirth sinned? Of course not! Paul is talking about the
actual commission of personal sin in both communities, and it doesn’t contradict his teaching to point out that there are members of both communities who haven’t sinned!
So: no “contradiction of the inspired Word of God”. Moreover, I would disagree that “a sinless Mary was not found in the traditions” of the 1st century Church. Wasn’t it that exact Church that declared Mary as ‘kecharitomene’ – she who had been graced to the full and continued to persist in that grace? Is a person who sins “full of grace”? No, brother, I’m afraid you’re mistaken: the early Church realized that something was special about Mary, and proclaimed it in her liturgies and in her oral and written traditions!