Sorry as far as I’ve been taught, God is the ONLY one who can say for sure if someone is going to Hell.
The Magisterium has infallibly taught that anyone who dies unrepentant from actual mortal sin certainly goes to Hell. (Pope Benedict XII, On the Beatific Vision of God; Council of Florence, 6 July 1439.)
Also if this woman is on any pill or Yaz for PMDD and not to just prevent pregnancy - it’s licit - it’s allowed by the church - regardless of what may be a possible out come.
The Magisterium teaches no such thing. The Church has never taught that a woman may choose to use abortifacient contraception AND choose to remain sexually active, despite the abortive and contraceptive ends of this act, merely to fulfill a medical purpose.
The CCC, the Compendium, and Veritatis Splendor all teach that to be moral an act must have only good intentions, only good in the moral object, and the bad consequences must not outweigh the good consequences. It is a serious doctrinal error to claim that any act is morally licit “regardless of what may be a possible outcome”. The reasonably anticipated consequences of our acts affect the morality of our decisions.
In the case of choosing to use abortifacient contraception AND choosing to continue to be sexually active, the bad consequences of multiple deaths of one’s own conceived children FAR OUTWEIGHS the good of being able to continue having marital relations. So the act would be gravely immoral even if it were “indirect” abortion.
But the Magisterium teaches that the use of abortifacient contraception is intrinsically evil, and so is always immoral, regardless of the purpose for which the act was chosen.
Humanae Vitae specifically teaches that direct abortion is not justified by therapeutic reasons: “all direct abortion, even for therapeutic reasons, are to be absolutely excluded” (HV 14). Therefore, the medical purpose of using abortifacient contraception does not change the act into indirect abortion.
In addition, the USCCB and the Holy See have both condemned “the objective immorality of contraceptive (direct) sterilization even if done for medical reasons”, again proving that an intrinsically evil act (such as contraception, sterilization, or abortion) is not justified by a medical purpose, nor is it transformed from direct to indirect by a medical purpose. (NCCB, Statement on Tubal Ligation; CDF, Quaecumque Sterilizatio)
Pope John Paul II: “No circumstance, no purpose, no law whatsoever can ever make licit an act which is intrinsically illicit, since it is contrary to the Law of God which is written in every human heart, knowable by reason itself, and proclaimed by the Church.” (The Gospel of Life, 62)
With all the talk of pills being abortifacients - WHY does no one bring up the fact that with all women, it is not odd for the body to naturally keep some fertilized eggs from implanting - you can’t tell the difference AND it is a possible consequence with CERTAIN progesterone/estrogen pills among others- no one can say for sure if this wouldn’t happen anyway. I’m not pro abortion - I’m just saying all the facts need to be put out there.
If a prenatal dies by failing to implant, but without any action or decision on the part of anyone, then the death is accidental; no one sinned. But if a prenatal dies as a direct result of a decision to use abortifacients, then the death is not accidental; it is a grave sin.
If you directly kill someone, by your own knowing choice, you cannot justify that act by saying that perhaps the person would have died anyway, by accidental death, if you had not acted.
Pope John Paul II: “The close connection which exists, in mentality, between the practice of contraception and that of abortion is becoming increasingly obvious. It is being demonstrated in an alarming way by the development of chemical products, intrauterine devices and vaccines which, distributed with the same ease as contraceptives, really act as abortifacients in the very early stages of the development of the life of the new human being.” (Gospel of Life, 13)