Question: What’s the force of law behind these lines:
Remember, EX CATHEDRA was not available to Pius V at that time. Or was it?
You
must realize that trying to claim Quo Primum as a dogmatic/doctrinal definition is absurd on at least two counts.
First, dogmas a revealed truths. The deposit of faith was revealed definitively in Christ and public revelation ended with the death of the last Apostle. So are you trying to say that about the beginning of the 2nd century God had already revealed to man that a) beginning in 1570 b) no priest of the Roman rite would be able to say Mass according to anything but the missal promulgated by Pius V in that year unless c) he belonged to certain classes of people using books that had been approved and in continuous use for 200 years or more. So maybe it’s not dogma, it’s just a doctrine. In that case you’re claiming we can somehow deduce a, b, and c from the deposit of faith. Just as odd a claim, and one I highly doubt you are trying to make.
Second, arrogating infallibility to the disciplinary measures of Quo Primum would make you so radically sedevacantist it’s not even funny. This follows from the fact that all of our popes since 1604 (Clement VIII) have used a slightly different missal. We haven’t had a Catholic hieararchy since the early 17th century - and still don’t!
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- because even the “modernist-sedevacantists” use, say, the 1955 missal or some other 20th century edition, a far cry from the 1570 text. All in all, a fairly laughable assertion.
PS - don’t tell me that in appealing to the authority of Trent, which made no claims to the perpetual status of the revised editions for which it called, you’re becoming some sort of conciliarist. No appeal, including to a council, can be made to a pope’s decisions, so disciplinary this makes no difference and doctrinally, well, we just covered that.