N
ntisawesome
Guest
Hi and thanks for reading my post.
I am currently sitting on the fence regarding becoming a member of the Catholic church. I was raised a protestant, and learned everything I thought I knew about Catholics from non-Catholics. Let’s just say I am realizing that I have been misinformed on many issues.
I understand that to become a Catholic one must embrace 100% of the teachings of the [Catholic] church. Thus is only makes sense that I should do my best to learn what all of those teachings are before I can become a member while remaining honest with myself and God.
A couple general questions:
Please know that I am nervous asking about Mary and I don’t want this to be taken the wrong way since I know how important she and her image is to Catholics. I promise I am just seeking clarification and wish to offend no one.
I am having a difficult time understanding why Catholics pray directly to Mary. I have read the section on the Blessed Virgin Mary and I must say it is very very complicated. I can accept that she was divinely protected from God and thus protected from original and personal sin for her whole life while still remaining human and retaining her free will. The part that I have difficulty with is this part:
It can be found in
It’s page 167 in the copy that was lent to me, I’m not sure how much that might deviate in someone else’s copy, but here it is.
“After the Assumption [into heaven] she could no longer merit grace for others, but she can still intercede and by her prayers exercise in glory a role comparable to that of other saints in heaven but immeasurably more effective because she is the Mother of the God with whom she pleads.”
This seems to be saying that Mary can somehow coerce (maybe too strong of a word but my brain cannot find a better one) God into answering her prayers because she is the mother of his son? I get a picture in my mind of a dad being too hard on his kids and then mom taking him aside privately and defending the children.
The implications as I see them are that different people have different abilities to influence God. This doesn’t make sense to me given what we are all taught as Christians.
I am currently sitting on the fence regarding becoming a member of the Catholic church. I was raised a protestant, and learned everything I thought I knew about Catholics from non-Catholics. Let’s just say I am realizing that I have been misinformed on many issues.
I understand that to become a Catholic one must embrace 100% of the teachings of the [Catholic] church. Thus is only makes sense that I should do my best to learn what all of those teachings are before I can become a member while remaining honest with myself and God.
A couple general questions:
- By reading the Catechism, will I have done this?
(learned all the teachings of the Catholic church) - Under what circumstances can these teachings change? and to what degree could they change within a single person’s lifetime?
Please know that I am nervous asking about Mary and I don’t want this to be taken the wrong way since I know how important she and her image is to Catholics. I promise I am just seeking clarification and wish to offend no one.
I am having a difficult time understanding why Catholics pray directly to Mary. I have read the section on the Blessed Virgin Mary and I must say it is very very complicated. I can accept that she was divinely protected from God and thus protected from original and personal sin for her whole life while still remaining human and retaining her free will. The part that I have difficulty with is this part:
It can be found in
Code:
"Blessed Virgin Mary"
"Doctrine of the Second Vatican Council"
"Christ the one mediator--and Mary"
“After the Assumption [into heaven] she could no longer merit grace for others, but she can still intercede and by her prayers exercise in glory a role comparable to that of other saints in heaven but immeasurably more effective because she is the Mother of the God with whom she pleads.”
This seems to be saying that Mary can somehow coerce (maybe too strong of a word but my brain cannot find a better one) God into answering her prayers because she is the mother of his son? I get a picture in my mind of a dad being too hard on his kids and then mom taking him aside privately and defending the children.
The implications as I see them are that different people have different abilities to influence God. This doesn’t make sense to me given what we are all taught as Christians.
existed from all time, and was free to choose who would bear the Son of God. Why would he not pick the best possible candidate throughout all time and all the nations? And how could he allow the womb he would be in to be stained with sin?