I think it would be helpful for him to have been less general about their ideas as those thinkers have fallen out of fashion. Specifically, what was it about those errors made them heterodox opinions.
Ahh, but that’s the joy of reading bulls / encyclicals / conciliar documents / Aquinas’
Summa, isn’t it? Going backward from “what is written on the page” to “whom they’re addressing and what their arguments were in the first place” –
that’s the real academic thrill, in the attempt to understand the mind of the magisterial authors!
The point is that these are individual interpretations, not statements of the teaching of the Catholic Church as such. For that, we need either a more authoritative, or a more consensual, opinion.
OK, but, let’s look at that thought. First, the CCC isn’t doctrine
itself, but it re-states the doctrine of the Church. (And yes, not every word in the CCC is a re-statement of doctrine, I know, but by-and-large, we find doctrine represented there.)
So, given that the CCC discusses the assertions of HG, wouldn’t we infer that this is much more than “individual opinion” or “unauthoritative teaching”, and much more reasonably considered the actual “teaching of the Catholic Church as such”?
This ^ is a mess of a definition.
Take it up with the Church, who wrote the Catechism, I guess?
Anyway, why is it a ‘mess’? It identifies that ‘original sin’ isn’t ‘personal sin’ – which is a common confusion! – and it identifies it as being a ‘state’. Where’s the ‘mess’ there?
The whole thing is just too questionable, too archaic, and there’s been too much backpedaling by the Church for me to take it as anything but a misunderstanding on the part of the Church.
You are free to disagree with the stated doctrinal teaching of the Church. Yet… are you saying that you, personally, are more wise than 2000 years of teachers in the Church, who themselves (as the magisterium) are protected against teaching error?
1Lord1Faith":
Does that have the appearance of “not understanding” original sin, to you?
Absolutely.
You have an interesting definition of “lack of understanding”, then.
But not only is the doctrine poorly defined, it’s not even apparent that anyone understands its defining elements. I’m sure theologians have tried to make it make sense, but there’s just no consensus on a coherent explanation.
I’m not aware of any such incoherence among theologians. Care to provide any citations of this purported “lack of consensus”?