Reconciling Humani Generis with the human genetic data showing that there never were just two first parents

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In which case papal infallibility fails.
Well, yes. But non-Catholics have a pretty dim view of papal infallibility anyway.

However most of the Catholics on this site have complete respect for papal infallibility, but, unlike yourself, do not think that a papal encyclical, regardless of its subject matter, is such a statement.
Until another Pope makes a statement of equal formality in order to add nuance, paragraph 37 is the Church’s binding definition.
That’s probably true. The sooner a new encyclical reverses it the better!
 
To me, the weakness in his argument is that the Church doesn’t even understand how original sin works.
Not sure what you mean here. The Church does define it:
  • “original sin is called “sin” only in an analogical sense: it is a sin “contracted” and not “committed” - a state and not an act.” (CCC, #404).
  • “Although it is proper to each individual,295 original sin does not have the character of a personal fault in any of Adam’s descendants. It is a deprivation of original holiness and justice, but human nature has not been totally corrupted: it is wounded in the natural powers proper to it, subject to ignorance, suffering and the dominion of death, and inclined to sin.” (CCC, #405)
  • “original sin is transmitted with human nature, “by propagation, not by imitation” and that it is. . . ‘proper to each’”." (CCC, #419)
Does that have the appearance of “not understanding” original sin, to you? 🤔
The only use for it is as a justification for things like Baptism, and Jesus. But to me, instead of being a justification for those things it’s more like an answer to a question that no one asked. Baptism and Jesus don’t need original sin as their justification to exist.
Oh. There we go. You throw out the explanation for original sin, because you don’t see the need for it. Got it.
Because of our free will. I suppose that’s not too far afield from just saying original sin.
Hmm… interesting. OK: so, we wouldn’t say that ‘free will’ causes original sin, right? I mean, without free will, there’d be no free choice to disobey God, so there’d be no sin; I get that. However, that would be like saying “life causes death”, since if I wasn’t alive, I’d never die. That doesn’t quite hold up, either.

So, I’m not sure I’d agree that we need “original sin” in order to define “free will”. That seems backward to me. “Free will” explains why “original sin” is a possibility, not the other way around…
I wonder what we’d end up with if we selectively bred them for intelligence?
A lot of uncomfortable guilt at Christmas Eve “seven fishes” dinners? 🤣
 
I am taking paragraph 37 as an ex cathedra statement
🤦‍♂️
Well, that’s helpful for keeping a discussion productive. Let’s call a pope a ‘lunatic’ in a Catholic forum!
Pius does not name name and bring receipts when he spends a lot of word salad on explaining the errors paragraph 37 is meant to stand in opposition against.
That’s pretty characteristic of papal writing. If it’s meant to stand the test of time, it’s unhelpful to constrain it to a particular person or movement; after all, once that movement fades away, the temptation will be to disregard the papal statement as having become irrelevant.

(BTW… “word salad”? It doesn’t seem that hard to grok, IMHO…)
But non-Catholics have a pretty dim view of papal infallibility anyway.
That doesn’t make it untrue, however. Lots of people used to have a pretty dim view on the notion that the world wasn’t flat. We see how well that turned out… 😉
 
Social learning from extant individuals requires only the faculty of memory and the ability to mimic […]
How does this differ qualitatively from anybody else’s learning from their predecessors? The reason cheetahs have not learned to farm from their ancestors is that the ancestors never discovered how to do it in the first place. The reason they are efficient hunters, however, is most certainly because they have learned this behaviour from their parents, who learnt it from theirs, and so on. The rehabilitation of cheetahs (which happened to be the subject of the first article I found to illustrate this) and other orphaned animals can be a very tricky job precisely because they have no one to teach them how to feed. Unless they can be taught, they usually die. I’d call that quite significant…
 
(BTW… “word salad”? It doesn’t seem that hard to grok, IMHO…)

(Please Note: This uploaded content is no longer available.) Hugh_Farey:
Haha, yeah. I know I am being harsh on him for lack of systematic to the point writing. It is safe to say that I have read this encyclical more than any other. It took me a few re-re-reads to get back into the mindset. I probably last re-read it 15 years ago when I was still in daily theological and philosophical studies, and since then I have been in a completely different profession and mode of thinking. Plus, in my line of work, word salad makes your case weaker.

I totally understand why he is not specific about names, but I think it would be helpful for him to have been less general about their ideas as those thinkers have fallen out of fashion. Specifically, what was it about those errors made them heterodox opinions.
 
Let’s call a pope a ‘lunatic’ in a Catholic forum!
I think you may have missed my point. I’m not calling a pope a lunatic, nor denying that papal infallibility is a thing. Anybody who reads anything interprets it in a way peculiar to themselves. They may give it more or less respect than it deserves, or than its author intended. No doubt most of us here have every respect for all our pontiffs, but non-Catholic Christians may have less, and atheists may have none whatsoever. You and I and Allyson certainly agree in not thinking popes or their pronouncements, are worthless, but we differ in how we do, in fact, interpret the authority of Humani Generis. The point is that these are individual interpretations, not statements of the teaching of the Catholic Church as such. For that, we need either a more authoritative, or a more consensual, opinion.
 
How does this differ qualitatively from anybody else’s learning from their predecessors?
The cheetah and the birds, as I understand the articles, directly experienced the behaviors that they now mimic, either by watching existing cheetahs, birds or human beings do as much.

I have never directly experienced another composing music, making a chocolate bavarian cream pie, write poetry, programing a DVR, or overcoming insomnia. But I know how to.
 
original sin is called “sin” only in an analogical sense: it is a sin “contracted” and not “committed” - a state and not an act.”
This ^ is a mess of a definition. Not only that, but the whole thing is based on an allegory in which a ‘real’ person exists. The whole thing is just too questionable, too archaic, and there’s been too much backpedaling by the Church for me to take it as anything but a misunderstanding on the part of the Church.
original sin is transmitted with human nature, “by propagation,
More mess of definition.
Does that have the appearance of “not understanding” original sin, to you?
Absolutely. But not only is the doctrine poorly defined, it’s not even apparent that anyone understands its defining elements. I’m sure theologians have tried to make it make sense, but there’s just no consensus on a coherent explanation.
You throw out the explanation for original sin, because you don’t see the need for it.
Not for my faith, no. If you find the doctrine necessary for your faith…by all means have at it.
So, I’m not sure I’d agree that we need “original sin” in order to define “free will”. That seems backward to me. “Free will” explains why “original sin” is a possibility, not the other way around…
Well, I didn’t mean that one is necessary for the other.
 
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Pius does not name name and bring receipts when he spends a lot of word salad on explaining the errors paragraph 37
Now it is in no way apparent how such an opinion …
Seem reasonable to interpret that a temporal condition applies to what follows in p37, i.e., “Now”
 
I think it would be helpful for him to have been less general about their ideas as those thinkers have fallen out of fashion. Specifically, what was it about those errors made them heterodox opinions.
Ahh, but that’s the joy of reading bulls / encyclicals / conciliar documents / Aquinas’ Summa, isn’t it? Going backward from “what is written on the page” to “whom they’re addressing and what their arguments were in the first place” – that’s the real academic thrill, in the attempt to understand the mind of the magisterial authors!
The point is that these are individual interpretations, not statements of the teaching of the Catholic Church as such. For that, we need either a more authoritative, or a more consensual, opinion.
OK, but, let’s look at that thought. First, the CCC isn’t doctrine itself, but it re-states the doctrine of the Church. (And yes, not every word in the CCC is a re-statement of doctrine, I know, but by-and-large, we find doctrine represented there.)

So, given that the CCC discusses the assertions of HG, wouldn’t we infer that this is much more than “individual opinion” or “unauthoritative teaching”, and much more reasonably considered the actual “teaching of the Catholic Church as such”?
This ^ is a mess of a definition.
Take it up with the Church, who wrote the Catechism, I guess?

Anyway, why is it a ‘mess’? It identifies that ‘original sin’ isn’t ‘personal sin’ – which is a common confusion! – and it identifies it as being a ‘state’. Where’s the ‘mess’ there?
The whole thing is just too questionable, too archaic, and there’s been too much backpedaling by the Church for me to take it as anything but a misunderstanding on the part of the Church.
You are free to disagree with the stated doctrinal teaching of the Church. Yet… are you saying that you, personally, are more wise than 2000 years of teachers in the Church, who themselves (as the magisterium) are protected against teaching error? 🤔
1Lord1Faith":
Does that have the appearance of “not understanding” original sin, to you?
Absolutely.
You have an interesting definition of “lack of understanding”, then. 😉
But not only is the doctrine poorly defined, it’s not even apparent that anyone understands its defining elements. I’m sure theologians have tried to make it make sense, but there’s just no consensus on a coherent explanation.
I’m not aware of any such incoherence among theologians. Care to provide any citations of this purported “lack of consensus”?
 
You are free to disagree with the stated doctrinal teaching of the Church. Yet… are you saying that you, personally, are more wise than 2000 years of teachers in the Church,
I’m saying I don’t have the baggage that they have to carry.
who themselves (as the magisterium) are protected against teaching error?
Again, if this helps you with your faith…
I’m not aware of any such incoherence among theologians.
You just posted some upthread.
 
I’m saying I don’t have the baggage that they have to carry.
It’s more like “standing on the shoulders of giants” than “carrying the baggage of the ages”…
Again, if this helps you with your faith…
The alternative seems to be “I’m a Catholic, but I choose to not believe what the Church teaches”. There’s word for that approach. Hmm… what is it, again…??? 🤔
You just posted some upthread.
That was in regards to how we understand ‘origins’, not original sin, wouldn’t you say?
 
I have never directly experienced another composing music, making a chocolate bavarian cream pie, write poetry, programing a DVR, or overcoming insomnia. But I know how to.
Better than I do, no doubt.
Well, fair enough, but I think you have shifted the goalposts ever so slightly. If a distinctively human trait is the ability to learn from books or videos, consider whether you think the earliest humans could do any of that. Does this mean that you think they were not human? I think we have been attempting to distinguish between the first people who can be called “true men” and their immediate ancestors or co-hominids.

Though I do think the ability to make a chocolate Bavarian cream pie is certainly evidence of a soul…
 
This very statements admits par 37 is not infallible.
No. I said nothing about reversing the definition. I said adding nuance. I think you need to review how the Magesterium is intended to work.
 
“Findings” is on occasion not the right word, as a subsequent finding replaces prior findings. 🤷‍♂️
Yes in some cases; no in others. See my example where analysis of mtDNA and nucelar DNA from a Neanderthal provided two findings that ultimately answered a question that had been debated. The second finding did not change the first finding. It is still true that there are no known mtDNA haplo groups derived from Neanderthals in modern human populations, even though that first finding was not conclusive with regards to whether modern humans interbred with Neanderthals.
 
Could we change that to ‘latest man standing’?
We certainly could. If we make it another 100,000 years we will be different from who we are now even if we never diverge into other subspecies.

There is also a book called Lone Survivors that I want to get and read. I need to read the ones I have already bought too. I am a bit of a bibliophile. lol.
 
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Freddy:
Could we change that to ‘latest man standing’?
We certainly could. If we make it another 100,000 years we will be different from who we are now even if we never diverge into other subspecies.

There is also a book called Lone Survivors that I want to get and read. I need to read the ones I have already bought too. I am a bit of a bibliophile. lol.
I asked a question many moons ago (I think in this forum): Would you prefer to go back in time to see where we came from or ahead in time to see where we’re going.

Still can’t make up my mind.
 
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