D
De_Maria
Guest
Because the question, as it is phrased, makes no sense. So, I’ll have to assume that you intended it that way. You asked:
Oh, sorry. I read it wrong the first time. Correct. In the instant that a person sins, after having been washed by the grace of the Holy Spirit in Baptism, (s)he is no longer sinless.So in the very instant that person sins after having been baptized, (s)he is no longer sinless?
Correct. I believe Scripture says:Because this brings us back to the more substantial issue: if baptism does not make us sinless, at least any further than until the first sin committed after baptism, it follows that Christians can not make a claim to be without sin.
1 John 1:10If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.
And this is another reason why Catholics do not declare themselves saved.
Most of the time. The difference is that you never, ever, consider yourself washed of all sins and actually righteous. Which is what you say next.Yet, we believe that we are justified through faith by the blood of Christ. Hence, simul justus et peccator is an adequate and factual description of our state of being.
We consider ourselves “washed” by the grace of the Holy Spirit. There is a true transformation going on in our soul and there is a potential to achieve total sinlessness in this world.We are being covered by the righteousness of Christ, rather than being inherently righteous.
But, you might ask, what about 1 John 1:10? The answer is that we won’t declare ourselves sinless. We leave that judgment to God.
Scripture does not contradict itself:Indeed, there is no one on earth who is righteous, no one who does what is right and never sins. (Eccl. 7:20)
Luke 1:6And they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless.
Do you believe one and not the other? Or, how do you reconcile one to the other?