T
TheAtheist
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You might also want to look up the writings of the philosopher Ludwig Wittgenstein, specifically his later work regarding “language games”.The closest thing we have in the west to Buddhist philosophy is the social science of Semiotics, or the science of signs and how our brains “work” in regard to signification. :
Many schools of Buddhism (and to be complete on this matter, Non-Dual/Advaita Vedantic Hinduism) distrusts the ability of the spoken/written language in its ability to adequately communicate about reality.
Ultimately for them, absolute Truth can only be conveyed via Experience (even verified Empirical Data isn’t the gold standard). Otherwise there is a tendency to start confusing ideas about The Thing In and of Itself, the Mental Conception of the Thing, and the Symbol of the Thing.
I think one of the reasons why so many Westerners (be you Christians, Atheists, whatever), have such a hard time trying to understand what the Buddhists (or any of the other Dharmic faiths for that matter) believe is because their underlying intellectual structure partakes of a variety of different subfields/disciplines which the West in its historical progression has put into these nice neat little boxes.
The flaw in this line of thinking, is to believe that those categorizations are universal.
As i’ve often quoted a Chinese friend of mine who is actually one of yours (he is Catholic)
Putting the issue of the meaning and nuances behind words aside, because that’s a whole other can of worms. What about Logic? In order for dialogue or debate to occur, these rules of understanding need to be established. But is the logic systems of Aristotle compatible with Dharmakirti? And do either one of them have compatibility with my own native tradition which jettisoned a formal understanding of logic in its philosophic discourse until Buddhism showed up at our doorstep with Dharmakirti’s manuals?
If the words we use to translate foreign words do not carry the same nuances, if the rules of understanding are in conflict, and if the history of development of ideas is not adequately conveyed - can we really “speak about” another system of thought that emanates outside of our respective cultures in an informed sense?
I kind of buy into his statement.Or are we simply tilting Strawmen?
Heck, to a certain degree this thread (along with the “How to speak with Hindus” thread hanging around here) kind of proves his point.
These religions that fall out of the Western/Middle Eastern experience are, to draw an analogy, running off a different Operating System.
Yet, when discussed on this or other forums, there’s a tendency to slip back into Aristotlean-Analytical thinking (because that’s your baseline) when evaluating this concepts AND investing meanings/nuances to the translated words when those nuances do not exist in the Original definitions.
Don’t get me wrong, this happens in the reverse direction as well. I remember when I had to try to explain to a number of Hindu students what the Doctrine of the Trinity and Incarnation was…
4 Hours… 4 Hours of parsing out the words like Homoousios, Hypostasis, Hypostatic Union, and Oikonomia (not exactly easy theological terms to translate into English!)…back into a tongue they understood approximate words.
…and then striking down all the erroneous conceptions those words used bring up.
Ex. Oikonomia/οἰκονομία In Greek -->Economy in English. → अर्थ प्रबन्धन in Hindi
Which resulted in the comment of “So this Jesus, he had some sort of financial plan tied to his Resurrection?”
:crying:
Obviously something got lost in translation which required a lot of explanation.