S
sandusky
Guest
We can’t; we are both fallible; therefore, one, or both of us is clearly wrong.Either Jesus meant that we have to actually eat His flesh and drink His blood, or He didn’t mean that. Regardless of what He actually meant, these positions contradict each other, so how can we say that they’re equally correct?
A side note, the “blued” statement is not really true with respect to the Roman church.The problem with disagreements that arise from sola scriptura is that there’s never any way to resolve them: If there are two contradictory, but plausible, interpretations of a passage, we have no way of knowing which one is correct and which is not. Since God’s not writing any more Scripture to help us out,…
As stated by a Catholic on another thread, "a dogma may derive inexorably from the Deposit of Faith as our understanding matures." That poster then illustrates that point with a quote from then Cardinal Ratzinger:**…it cannot be excluded that at a certain point in dogmatic development, the understanding of the realities of the words of the Deposit of Faith can progress in the life of the Church, and the Magisterium may proclaim some of these doctrines also as dogmas of divine and Catholic faith, **which is to say, **being divinely revealed.**It would seem that in your church, God has written new scripture, and may indeed do so in the future as well.
The difficulty with that, for me and many others, is that the idea of oral apostolic tradition being equal to the scripture is, IMO, misleading. What you have, IMO, is an oral tradition that trumps the scripture; that is plainly demonstrated in the so-called Marian dogmas (another topic).Combining Scripture and Tradition avoids this problem by allowing us a way to determine what God actually meant. Tradition gives us a living authority, equal to the Bible, that is capable of defining doctrine to settle these disagreements.
Though the makeup of the canon is disputed between us, what is written in the OT, and NT is plainly recorded for all to see. OTOH, what is spoken of as oral tradition is ambiguous, obscure, and not plainly recorded for all to see, and what the church claims is oral tradition, cannot, IMO, be proven.
Furthermore, in both instances, the Roman church claims that it has both written, and defined the canon of scripture, and it has spoken and defined what is oral tradition as well; moreover, that church claims, for itself, the right of sole determiner of what both scripture and tradition means; therefore, the church claims an authority that is greater than both scripture, and tradition.
(That being the case, how can your church logically be subservient to the things she defines?)
What you are espousing, then, is sola ecclesia—church alone; in point of fact, that is the argument that you are using against sola scriptura—sola ecclesia.
So then, if the Catholic is justified in charging the sola scripturist with circular reasoning (and I’m not saying that you’ve specifically done that, however, that is the most common Catholic charge against sola scriptura) when he admonishes, “you can’t argue that the Bible is authorititive by appealing to the Bible as claiming authority for itself,” so too, the magisterium’s argument for its authority is a circular argument because the magisterium appeals to itself for its authority.
Your conclusion, as I’ve shown, is based upon circular reasoning.So, the short version: With the Bible alone, I have no way of being certain any one of my possibly-false beliefs is correct, and I will never have any way of gaining that certainty. With the Bible and Tradition, I can gain that certainty, because the teaching authority of Tradition can clarify things that were previously unclear.