M
Melkite_Sword
Guest
If man were to have impure thoughts about a woman, in other words treating here like a sexual object. Does he have the duty of reparation? It may seem silly but i suppose he did ‘harm’ her without her knowledge. By treating her like a sexual object in his mind would he have committed an ‘offence against justice’? What about if a man fornicated with a woman telling her that he loved her when in fact he only used her, should he tell her ‘I only used you as an object’? wouldn’t that cause more harm? … i hope someone gets the drift