D
The US Bishops are in the midst of a Canon Law debate on the subject.Does the bishop of the diocese have the authority to alter, change or disrgard published liturgical norms specifically in regard to consecrating the wine in a glass decanter? Are there any canon laws which apply in this case?
Good for you!From the 2004 Instruction Redemptionis Sacramentum:
"[106.] However, the pouring of the Blood of Christ after the consecration from one vessel to another is completely to be avoided, lest anything should happen that would be to the detriment of so great a mystery. Never to be used for containing the Blood of the Lord are flagons, bowls, or other vessels that are not fully in accord with the established norms. "
The document has in its conclusion:
"This Instruction, prepared by the Congregation for Divine Worship and the Discipline of the Sacraments by mandate of the Supreme Pontiff John Paul II in collaboration with the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith, was approved by the same Pontiff on the Solemnity of St. Joseph, 19 March 2004, and he ordered it to be published and to be observed immediately by all concerned. … "
The full text is at vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/ccdds/documents/rc_con_ccdds_doc_20040423_redemptionis-sacramentum_en.html .
Yes. Running away won’t solve the problem.Thank you all so much. I know that I am correct in my thinking about this, and I can’t believe that these parishes keep doing this. I am going to tell the pastor and assistant pastors that I can no longer attend their parish, even though there is Perpetual Adoration, and other things that may be orthodox, although , not many, I cannot, in good conscience attend when I see they are being disobedient.
Do you think that is too heavy.![]()
Do you know for sure that there is a parish in your area that is better than this one?Thank you all so much. I know that I am correct in my thinking about this, and I can’t believe that these parishes keep doing this. I am going to tell the pastor and assistant pastors that I can no longer attend their parish, even though there is Perpetual Adoration, and other things that may be orthodox, although , not many, I cannot, in good conscience attend when I see they are being disobedient.
Do you think that is too heavy.![]()
You are very blessed!There definitely are parishes more orthodox than this one. In fact, I don’t even belong to this parish. I go to 6:30 am Mass because it is the earliest one within 3 miles of my house. I can go to 6:00 am Mass at my parish, 14 miles away, very orthodox. It’s just that I am lazy. Maybe this is God’s way of telling me to sacrifice some sleep and go where there is constant obedience.![]()
I hate to sound like Nurse Ratchet of *One Flew Over the Cuckoo’s Nest *(didn’t she have a good line about “someone else’s problem”?), but I, too, think you should at least draw someone’s attention to the matter. Have you not met with anyone on that parish’s Liturgy Committee? I would see what good you can do for the parish before giving them up for good. Maybe that’s what you were sent there for, you never know!Thank you all so much. I know that I am correct in my thinking about this, and I can’t believe that these parishes keep doing this. I am going to tell the pastor and assistant pastors that I can no longer attend their parish, even though there is Perpetual Adoration, and other things that may be orthodox, although , not many, I cannot, in good conscience attend when I see they are being disobedient.
Do you think that is too heavy.![]()
What is “particular law”?When do you think the Pope will reply? And is there somplace where you can find it when he does?. It seems to me that GIRM #283 requires the bishop to stay within the limits of particular law and is required by canon law 392 to enforce it. Also I believe that there is a canon law 135-2 that does not let a lessor authority change a law made by a higher authority. Is that correct? So the question boils down to: can particular law be changed and who has the authority to do it?![]()
Stick around here.When do you think the Pope will reply? And is there somplace where you can find it when he does?. It seems to me that GIRM #283 requires the bishop to stay within the limits of particular law and is required by canon law 392 to enforce it. Also I believe that there is a canon law 135-2 that does not let a lessor authority change a law made by a higher authority. Is that correct? So the question boils down to: can particular law be changed and who has the authority to do it?![]()
Particular Law is law that governs only a part of the Church, not the whole.What is “particular law”?