I voted YES and AGREE.
Surely, our natural senses make us question why this is important, no matter what the answer is. To me, that is the starting point, because I just have to know why this makes a difference, in the first place.
An important point to consider is that Isaiah’s prophecy says that a young woman or virgin shall conceive the Messiah:
7:14 Therefore the Lord himself will give you this sign: the virgin shall be with child, and bear a son, and shall name him Immanuel.
We have some insight and a problem. Some say the original Hebrew word means ‘young woman’ not necessarily a virgin. But, it seems that Catholics for sure have taken the word to be “virgin.”
I’m not sure how this verse is fulfilled, with respect to naming him “Immanuel.”
I tend to agree with the scholarly and traditional Catholic position, that Mary was a virgin. Notice that the verse says that virgin shall bear a child, so Mary was a virgin at the time she bore the infant Jesus.
And, so , it is no mental leap to say that she was a virgin after, since conception and childbirth did not change her status of being a virgin.
OK, but why does that make a difference? ta da, this is it, for me: **Mary being a virgin before, during, and after she gave birth to Jesus fulfills the “sign” that she is the virgin that bore the Messiah – Jesus is the Messiah. She fulfills the scripture, and the scripture must be fulfilled. It’s not much of a sign, and I don’t think it’s a sign at all, that a young woman will bear a child. It stands out if a virgin bears a child. **
The prophecy says that she shall name him Immanuel. I don’t know how that is fulfilled in Mary. Right now, that’s harder for me to explain than the virginity part.