M
minkymurph
Guest
To come straight to the point, same-sex marriage has raised an interesting legal point in my part of the world which in my view, relates directly to the nature of marriage.
One of the arguments put forward against same-sex marriage is it changes the nature of marriage. I appreciate many on these forums do not support same-sex marriage at all, but I would like to invite discussion on the legal implications of same-sex marriage.
To explain -
I don’t know what the situation is in other countries, but in the UK adultery and non-consummation are grounds for civil divorce. The same provisions have not been made in relation to same-sex marriage. In my view, this means the law is drawing a distinction between a same-sex marriage, and a heterosexual marriage in that they are not of the same nature. Rather, in law is a same-sex marriage simply a civil contract between two people and the state is acknowledging the marital element of the contract in accordance with the wishes of the parties who entered into it, and a heterosexual marriage is perceived as more than this?
If so, it can be argued same-sex couples are not being given the same rights as unlike heterosexual couples, there is no provision for civil divorce. By contrast, it can be argued if the law were changed in order to permit heterosexual couples to divorce for any reason they so choose as it is merely a contract between two parties, this would have the effect of devaluing marriage.
Thoughts please.
One of the arguments put forward against same-sex marriage is it changes the nature of marriage. I appreciate many on these forums do not support same-sex marriage at all, but I would like to invite discussion on the legal implications of same-sex marriage.
To explain -
I don’t know what the situation is in other countries, but in the UK adultery and non-consummation are grounds for civil divorce. The same provisions have not been made in relation to same-sex marriage. In my view, this means the law is drawing a distinction between a same-sex marriage, and a heterosexual marriage in that they are not of the same nature. Rather, in law is a same-sex marriage simply a civil contract between two people and the state is acknowledging the marital element of the contract in accordance with the wishes of the parties who entered into it, and a heterosexual marriage is perceived as more than this?
If so, it can be argued same-sex couples are not being given the same rights as unlike heterosexual couples, there is no provision for civil divorce. By contrast, it can be argued if the law were changed in order to permit heterosexual couples to divorce for any reason they so choose as it is merely a contract between two parties, this would have the effect of devaluing marriage.
Thoughts please.