I agree that torture is wrong. However, I read that torture was used in the Inquisition, and heretics were burned at the stake with the apparent approval of the Church? How can the two seemingly contradictory teachings be reconciled?Recalling the teaching of St. John Paul II on torture, the chairman of the US bishops’ Committee on International Justice and Peace expressed concern about recent political …
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As much as people loathe it, the use of torture is a prudential matter.I agree that torture is wrong. However, I read that torture was used in the Inquisition, and heretics were burned at the stake with the apparent approval of the Church? How can the two seemingly contradictory teachings be reconciled?
The times are different and torture was not used as much during the Inquisition as is commonly understood (during the 1800s books were written by men trying to attack the Catholic Church that invented many of the common myths about the Inquisition.) Some torture and burning did occur though and Pope John Paul II apologized for it. There is a good, objective, article on the subject here: cbsnews.com/news/vatican-looks-back-at-inquisition/I agree that torture is wrong. However, I read that torture was used in the Inquisition, and heretics were burned at the stake with the apparent approval of the Church? How can the two seemingly contradictory teachings be reconciled?
As pnewton has pointed out, the Church teaches that torture is intrinsically evil. Therefore, it cannot be considered a matter prudential judgement. St. John Paul II caught this in Veritatis splendor, and the second Vatican Council proclaimed this in Gaudium et spes.As much as people loathe it, the use of torture is a prudential matter.
Gaudium et spes did not declare it intrinsically evil.As pnewton has pointed out, the Church teaches that torture is intrinsically evil. Therefore, it cannot be considered a matter prudential judgement. St. John Paul II caught this in Veritatis splendor, and the second Vatican Council proclaimed this in Gaudium et spes.
According to St. John Paul II, Gaudium et spes did teach torture to be intrinsically evil. Since he was at the Second Vatican Council, and since he was the Pope of Rome when he declared, in Veritatis splendor, that torture is intrinsically evil in accordance with Gaudium et spes, I’ll accept his teaching.Gaudium et spes did not declare it intrinsically evil.
The papal bull Ad extirpanda explicitly allowed torture.
If all mental torture was criminal, this would include solitary confinement and prisons in general. Obviously this is silly.
And by doing do he put himself at odds with just about every Pope since antiquity. That’s not how the Church works.According to St. John Paul II, Gaudium et spes did teach torture to be intrinsically evil. Since he was at the Second Vatican Council, and since he was the Pope of Rome when he declared, in Veritatis splendor, that torture is intrinsically evil in accordance with Gaudium et spes, I’ll accept his teaching.
That is a matter of opinion. He did quote the Second Vatican Council in his encyclical. The Church does work through encyclicals and Church councils, as opposed to lay opinions posted on the blogosphere.And by doing do he put himself at odds with just about every Pope since antiquity.
So just about every Pope since antiquity has addressed torture, and specifically taught that it is licit? Can you substantiate that claim? Furthermore, do you know better than St. John Paul II “how the Church works”?And by doing do he put himself at odds with just about every Pope since antiquity. That’s not how the Church works.
It may not be able to put the genie back in the bottle once this ‘terrorist’ threat is over.I don’t like the idea of torture, but as a last resort to get information out of terrorists, I realize it may be necessary.
What are you trying to say?It may not be able to put the genie back in the bottle once this ‘terrorist’ threat is over.
Seems to me there are two genies and two bottles.It may not be able to put the genie back in the bottle once this ‘terrorist’ threat is over.
I already stated a Pope who wrote a Bull allowing torture. It was taken for granted by most Popes in the middle ages. St. Augustine allowed torture, though he had reservations. One can make an argument that many forms of torture should not be used, and I would completely agree. Condemning as torture as intrinsically evil, however, goes against Church tradition and leaves an opening for all sorts of ridiculous arguments, as I have already stated.So just about every Pope since antiquity has addressed torture, and specifically taught that it is licit?
JPII was a great man, but not infallible in prudential matters like this.Can you substantiate that claim? Furthermore, do you know better than St. John Paul II “how the Church works”?
Precisely.Seems to me there are two genies and two bottles.
Genie No. 1: If this country countenances “torture” pursuant to the definition you offered, which is the infliction of severe pain in order to coerce, punish or to derive sadistic pleasure" in one context, then might that not be the first slide down a slippery slope in which it’s countenanced domestically and for political reasons? That seems a bit improbable, but when the executive department takes more and more power on itself and uses agencies of government politically (like the IRS) should we really doubt it?
Genie No. 2: Every person has his own idea of what “torture” is. An overinclusive “definition” cited in a previous post would absolutely preclude not only solitary confinement, but the conditions in nearly every prison or jail, and even the usual events of arrest and interrogation. It could even preclude acts of war designed not to kill but to destroy the enemy’s will to fight. If we accept overinclusion, will we eventually be obliged to, in effect, empty the prisons and make arrest “voluntary or not at all”?
The central problem is, and probably for some time will remain, that there’s no truly agreed “bright line test” as to what torture is and what it isn’t.
How are our prisons and law enforcement officers inflicting severe pain to coerce, punish or derive sadistic pleasure? That sounds almost like slander.Seems to me there are two genies and two bottles.
Genie No. 1: If this country countenances “torture” pursuant to the definition you offered, which is the infliction of severe pain in order to coerce, punish or to derive sadistic pleasure" in one context, then might that not be the first slide down a slippery slope in which it’s countenanced domestically and for political reasons? That seems a bit improbable, but when the executive department takes more and more power on itself and uses agencies of government politically (like the IRS) should we really doubt it?
Genie No. 2: Every person has his own idea of what “torture” is. An overinclusive “definition” cited in a previous post would absolutely preclude not only solitary confinement, but the conditions in nearly every prison or jail, and even the usual events of arrest and interrogation. It could even preclude acts of war designed not to kill but to destroy the enemy’s will to fight. If we accept overinclusion, will we eventually be obliged to, in effect, empty the prisons and make arrest “voluntary or not at all”?
The central problem is, and probably for some time will remain, that there’s no truly agreed “bright line test” as to what torture is and what it isn’t.
That permitting torture in certain circumstances risks routinizing it and therefore making it appear morally acceptable. I think it’s important to keep an absolute prohibition on it otherwise we can no longer say we aspire to be a decent society. Torture has no place in our justice system.What are you trying to say?