I
illuminator
Guest
I must take SDA2RC thoroughly to task on his last post.
To simply assume that an SDA understanding of this text flies in the face of 100s of years of scholarly understanding is a gross misunderstanding of history and what the Bible has to say on the topic. SDA2RC makes to fatal flaws in his reasoning. I will point these out in the next post:
This argument is fallacious as I will prove in the following:SDA2RC said, “…you come along, likely with little or no translation or ancient language experience, and ask us to ignore the scholars in order to support your re-translation of scripture. This is something that I, and most likely, most of my Catholic peers are not likely to do… Furthermore, you have not even provided and grammatical or historical support for your claim that nearly all scriptural translators are ignorant of a clear fact that the SDAChurch is able to see.”
- The greek says: Amen soi lego semeron met emou ese en to paradeso. Literally translated this is: “Truly to you I say today you will be with me in paradise” Notice that if the Greek writer wanted to make it absolutely clear that was the day that the thief was going to paradise he could have said, “Truly to you I say you will be with me in paradise today” - He did not (for good reason). The adverb “semeron”, “today” stands between two clauses which read literally “Truly to you I say” and “you will be with me in paradise” Again I repeat, based on the construction of this sentence, it is impossible to tell whether the adverb modifies the “I say” or the “you will be with me in paradise.”
The basis of the meaning of the passage should not be on where translators a millennia or more later decide to put the comma. It should be based on whether the interpretation of either meaning is internally consistent and consistent with the rest of the Bible. You seem to place more importance of where the comma is placed on the practice of translators over what the meaning of the text is. This is an unsound method of translation. It is one thing to compare uses of words throughout the Bible, it is quite another to compare punctuation – something that was never even written into the original document.SDA2RC said, “First, this phrase, “Verily I Say” is used 74 times (Greek: amen soi lego) and in all 74 times you will find a break after the phrase, because that was how it was used. To try to claim that we should break from the usual usage of the phrase in one case out of 74 in an attempt to support SDA theology is not logical, nor practical scriptural reading.”
To simply assume that an SDA understanding of this text flies in the face of 100s of years of scholarly understanding is a gross misunderstanding of history and what the Bible has to say on the topic. SDA2RC makes to fatal flaws in his reasoning. I will point these out in the next post: