T
toe
Guest
Hello all,
My girlfriend and I had an interesting conversation last night on which we’d like to get additional perspectives. We’re both 21, Catholic, and attending university.
If we decide to get married but we do not want children, are we to abstain from having sex? We reached the conclusion of “Yes”.
We’ve read that sexual intercourse exists for us to achieve a duality: bearing children and marital unity. With that, it should be assumed that one without the other is abusing the functional nature of sex.
We’d like to be married sometime after obtaining our undergraduate degrees, but there are specific things in life we want to do together afterwards. Next year, we intend to obtain our CETL certifications so that we may teach English abroad for awhile. Afterward, I would very much like to pursue my M.D. and she a Ph.D.
We know ourselves quite well, and we simply don’t know how plausible it is for us to successfully avoid sex all those years. This problem, though, brings up a broader issue: if a man and woman, married, can only afford to have, say, 5 children, are they only to have sex until they have their 5th child? After he or she is born, are they to spend the rest of their lives never engaging one another in sexual intercourse (assuming that a 6th child will decrease the quality of living for their entire family).
If it is required to avoid having sex with one another, what do we do if the marriage “calls” for it? Consummation, for one thing, has to occur. For our example, though, we don’t want to have kids. Therefore, should we not wed until we are ready to do so?
In the hypothetical family, if the husband and wife want to have sex with one another (to maintain a healthy relationship [which will directly affect their existing children]), which is the greater sin: telling a husband or wife that you cannot have sex anymore, or having sex even though you will actively try to not have a child?
This all assumes you consider the “rhythm method” of protection equal to condoms equal to birth control equal to “pulling out”, which is not a difficult conclusion to realize.
Let me know what you think; thanks for reading!
EDIT: Grammar.
My girlfriend and I had an interesting conversation last night on which we’d like to get additional perspectives. We’re both 21, Catholic, and attending university.
If we decide to get married but we do not want children, are we to abstain from having sex? We reached the conclusion of “Yes”.
We’ve read that sexual intercourse exists for us to achieve a duality: bearing children and marital unity. With that, it should be assumed that one without the other is abusing the functional nature of sex.
We’d like to be married sometime after obtaining our undergraduate degrees, but there are specific things in life we want to do together afterwards. Next year, we intend to obtain our CETL certifications so that we may teach English abroad for awhile. Afterward, I would very much like to pursue my M.D. and she a Ph.D.
We know ourselves quite well, and we simply don’t know how plausible it is for us to successfully avoid sex all those years. This problem, though, brings up a broader issue: if a man and woman, married, can only afford to have, say, 5 children, are they only to have sex until they have their 5th child? After he or she is born, are they to spend the rest of their lives never engaging one another in sexual intercourse (assuming that a 6th child will decrease the quality of living for their entire family).
If it is required to avoid having sex with one another, what do we do if the marriage “calls” for it? Consummation, for one thing, has to occur. For our example, though, we don’t want to have kids. Therefore, should we not wed until we are ready to do so?
In the hypothetical family, if the husband and wife want to have sex with one another (to maintain a healthy relationship [which will directly affect their existing children]), which is the greater sin: telling a husband or wife that you cannot have sex anymore, or having sex even though you will actively try to not have a child?
This all assumes you consider the “rhythm method” of protection equal to condoms equal to birth control equal to “pulling out”, which is not a difficult conclusion to realize.
Let me know what you think; thanks for reading!
EDIT: Grammar.