Thanks for all your replies. This actually doesn’t relate to any personal situation or relationship, since I’m just a celibate young bachelor; but I’m only wondering on a purely theological level how the Church views the moral precepts of the Old Law in relation to the New, and sex during menstruation just happens to be an example which I casually came across that confuses me a bit.
contemplative:
Intercourse of marrieds during menstruation isn’t ‘dirty’ or sinful but the act of homosexual intercourse is.
I agree with that but I’m looking for the Church’s official doctrine on the matter, and the underlying rationale. I can’t seem to find anything except attacks on Church intolerance (using Leviticus 18 and 20) against homosexuals when I google this subject.
martino:
I think that since none of us (assuming) know who Neithan really is, this is a good way to ask questions anonymously, which is in a way maintaining privacy.
lol true but I wouldn’t actually have any qualms bringing this up at, say, a Catholic study group or something. I think it might embarass other people more than myself, though. For some reason.
surf(name removed by moderator)ure:
It occurs to me that sex during menstruation could be mentioned in context with these sins because they all have one major thing in common: HYGIENE. We know that this was a very big factor in Mosaic Law, and we also know that women were considered “unclean” during their periods.
Just cleanliness laws? They (Chapters 18 and 20 of Leviticus) seem pretty clearly to be
moral precepts though… especially when pagan child sacrifice is mentioned (Lev. 18:21 & 20:2-5) right alongside. Plus the penalty for sex during menstruation was exile! (Lev. 20:18).
MarkInOregon:
The moral law we are still bound by is the 10 Commandments and not all the various Mosaic laws. Intercourse between married individuals, even during menstruation, does not break one of these commandments.
But the 10 commandments leave many, many moral laws out, such as incest, homosexuality and bestiality for example… so if only the Decalogue is eternal and included in the New Law, how do we also know that these others are grievous sins? (Don’t get me wrong, I’m not trying to play Devil’s Advocate and say that these others aren’t mortal sins, which they obviously are, I’m just confused as to the criteria for judging Divine Law with respect to and in the context of Mosaic Law). I don’t recall that Jesus ever mentioned them. I think the Apostles in several of the Epistles do, though. But how did they (the Apostles) know which particular laws
outside the Decalogue were still meant to be kept?
I guess I’m basically asking how sacred Tradition led to the comprehensive moral law that the Church propounds today, which is obviously much more than the 10 commandments and even the Gospels directly mention. It just seems to me that it would be natural to take these two Chapters of Leviticus (18 and 20) and say that they describe eternal moral laws, rather than throwing only
one of these laws out (sex during menstruation) as ceremonial and keeping all the others as moral. Besides, wasn’t it formerly Catholic doctrine that this was a mortal sin? Are there any Church Fathers perhaps who shed light on this topic?