I don’t know if it’s true but I’ve read on the Internet that some men are able to have multiple climaxes too but its rare and requires training. I don’t know if it would be medically advisable. I assume these men would be allowed an extra climax.
Question. If the wife has already climaxed before the husband, is she alloiwed an extra one through stimulation after the husband climaxes?
Question. How long after the husband climaxes is climax allowed for the wife? Does it have to be while the “engines” of the woman are still “running”, if you will, or can it be a little later in the evening? Like what would be the cut off point? Is it a time-based cut off or a condition-based cut off?
I don’t understand why the woman isn’t allowed to climax without the husband climaxing. Wouldn’t it be OK, if the woman climaxed and then the husband (maybe he’s not too into sex – there are a few people like that believe it or not, they have a website for support) pulled out – NOT to contracept, but just b/c he was not into it and completed the happy loving task of pleasing his wife?
I just don’t understand why between a husband and wife, them both together, the husband can’t just through stimulation and no intercourse bring the wife to climax. No seed is spilled and there’s no contraception involved.
Also, is climax for the woman allowed as part of the foreplay? What if she climaxes before actual intercourse begins? (it can happen) What if a couple prefers to try to do it that way with intercourse still happening after the female climax foreplay?