A
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Guest
Maybe. But we can’t know the heart and mind of every person who would engage in such an act. There may be, however unlikely, some people who genuinely feel that such are acts of love in preparation for the marital act and attach no feelings of concupiscence to those acts. Only God and the individual can know that.Even if we suppose that oral or anal penetration between a married couple, isn’t sinful, isn’t it still the case that oral and anal penetration is an activity that places one in near occasion of grave sin?
No. Being “an open question” necessarily makes it subjective. By claiming “the ends don’t justify the means”, in this case, would be begging the question (circular reasoning). You don’t actually know what “the end” is in this case. In the case of proponents, the “end” would be “to show mutual love and affection in which the totality of the person enters”. So, the means suits the end perfectly in their case.Also, if the question of whether such activity is in-itself sinful, is an open question, then it can be argued that even if the act is not intended as an end, and that the intended end is natural intercourse, we still have to consider the basic principle that ends don’t justify the means.
Correct, if the means are really intrinsically evil. But what is being discussed (oral stimulation, for example) isn’t “intrinsically evil”.So even if the end in mind is unitive and procreative, if the means to that end is intrinsically evil [insert here certain types of foreplay or stimulation], then said means are not permissible.