S
sw85
Guest
The problem is that, historically, the reason for civil marriage has been identical to the reason for sacramental marriage. And ultimately the rationale behind sacramental marriage is not so much divine revelation as simple natural law philosophy. When you say it is merely a religious definition, you are expressing, first, that you don’t really understand the Church’s position on here, and second, that a religious definition of marriage is necessarily irrational and therefore not a suitable basis for social policy.Many catholics, including many priests and bishops, strongly oppose the legalization of gay marriage. I understand (or at least I think I do) the churches teaching on homosexual acts as a sin, and I agree with that teaching. However, I don’t see how this necessitates opposing the legalization of gay marriage as many Catholics have led me to believe.
Marriage in my eyes (and the eyes of every Catholic) is a sacrament, instituted by Jesus, that can only be received by a man and woman, in which God forms an unbreakable union of the two.
“Marriage”, in the government’s eyes, is a legal contract between two consenting adults that extends certain rights and privileges to the two people entering the contract. Privileges such as the right to file a joint tax return, the right to make medical decisions for the other, the right of easy transfer of property upon one’s death.
I don’t see why the governments definition of marriage should be any different, and also why that definition can’t apply to two men or two women.
For the government to define marriage in any sort of religious way (e.g. the way the Catholic church defines marriage) would undermine some of the basics tenets on which the U.S. governmental system was founded, namely freedom of religion.
In light of my arguments above, I am looking for a defense of the idea that the Catholic Church, and all Catholics in general, should oppose legalization of gay marriage. Thank you for your responses.
Civil marriage is not merely a contract to grant people privileges (otherwise there’d be no reason to have marriage law; contract law would suffice). It is aimed at granting specific people specific rights – rights which pertain to their duty to procreate and raise a family responsibly.
To redefine civil marriage to include homosexuals is in a very meaningful sense a redefinition of the institution itself. It subordinates the rationality of the marital institution, reducing it to the level of a mere hand-out to favored political constituencies. And laws which have no rational basis are illegitimate and therefore necessarily unjust.
The way you define marriage, after all, in no way furnishes a basis for limiting marriage rights to explicitly sexual relationships. There should be no reason to limit marriage to two people (procreation doesn’t matter, after all), or to unrelated people, for instance. This would imply a civil right not only to polygamy and incest, but the right to have polygamous and incestuous relationships endorsed by the state.
At any rate, even if it were the case that the Church’s definition of marriage were based on revelation and not reason, I don’t see that that matters. Separation of church and state simply means that religious beliefs are not *entitled *to predominate, not that they cannot ever do so. They must complete in the democratic marketplace of ideas, not be enthroned in the law merely because the Church has said so.
Well, we’re not talking about outlawing homosexuality here, merely not extending it the same legal recognition because homosexual behavior is not a matter of public interest where heterosexual behavior is.By this logic, I would think that the Catholic church and its members would be striving to make pre-marital sex, adultery, lying, and any sin (all sins offend God) illegal.
Is there a difference?
Though it would certainly be legitimate for government to outlaw any and all of those things if it could do so without more grievously violating natural rights. The reason it doesn’t is simply that it can’t.