Sign of Jonah

[MHalsey]

Hi
We can see that Deuteronomy 34:10 mentions very clearly:"**And there arose no more a prophet in Israel **like unto Moses, whom the Lord knew face to face, in all the signs and wonders,"

and that is for future of Israel, for past (prior to Moses) and also in the times of Moses it would be just meaningless. So it pertains to future for sure, and even now in our own times whosoever reads this passage as long as OTBible is there and one who reads it their, for sure.

For Jesus it is most pertinently applicable, as he was a Jew and a Jewish Pharisee as they say, he must have read it time and again, yet he could neither delete it if he considered himself superior to Moses, nor he could issue a straight refutation of this verse with reference to it. He was, as our Catholic friends would believe, the only claimant of being superior to Moses, yet he did not fulfill this duty.

So surely he was not superior to Moses.

There arose an occasion to announce on the subject, when he wanted to show a sign to the adulterous Jews. Had he been superior to Moses or his miracles superior to the ProphetMessenger Moses? He would have said that he would show superior signs that Moses had shown as he was superior to Moses, but he chose an ordinary ProphetMessenger Jonah with no signs comparable to Moses.

My Catholic friends should pause a little here, and think unbiased; they would realize that the status of Jesus was higher to Jonah, accepted without doubt, but lesser to Moses.

Moses was the Principal Prophet who was given Torah by GodAllahYHWH and Jesus was a subordinate Prophet, as was also Jonah, who were sent to revive the Torah.

I think it is reasonable, however, no compulsion.

Thanks

Since Jesus left no written Word of GodAllahYHWH revealed on him, or authenticated by him when he last departed from Galilee; hence my Catholic friends believe many creeds created by the Catholic Clergy not originated by Jesus himself in person.

Since you like playing at semantics so much, Jesus didn’t live in Israel. He lived in Palestine or Judea. The nation of Israel technically speaking did not exist at the time of Jesus.

And just to beat a dead horse, the passage does not indicate there would NEVER be another. Only from the time of Moses up to the point the book was written. This is just your interpretation. And no matter how many times you post it, no Christian is going to buy it.

My Catholic friends should pause a little here, and think unbiased; they would realize that the status of Jesus was higher to Jonah, accepted without doubt, but lesser to Moses.

Think unbiased?? How is it that YOU are NOT unbiased based on your preconceived notion that the Bible has been corrupted by the Christians? If you paused to read the whole Bible with an “unbiased” outlook, you would come to see that Jesus is indeed the Son of God, Saviour, Priest, Prophet, King, and many more titles I don’t have room to type.

 

[Khalfan]

In those times, nearly two thousand years ago, the Jews counted any part of a day as a whole day when computing any consecutive periods of time. As Jesus was laid in the tomb on the Friday afternoon, was there throughout the Saturday, and only rose sometime before dawn on the Sunday (the Sunday having officially started at sunset on the Saturday according to the Jewish calendar), there can be no doubt that he was in the tomb for a period of three days. “three days and three nights”, in Jewish terminology, did not necessarily imply a full period of three actual days and three actual nights but was simply a colloquialism used to cover any part of the first and third days. A good example of this is found in the Book of Esther where the queen said that no one was to eat or drink for three days, night or day (Esther 4.16), but on the third day, when only two nights had passed, she went into the king’s chamber and the fast was ended.

In book of Esther, she said 3 days, not 3 days and 3 nights. It was the night between them what she meant by ‘day or night’. 3 days and the nights between them was not to eat.

Do you have any other example to merge day and night?

How much time Jonah was in the belly of fish?

 

[anthony022071]

Hi
We can see that Deuteronomy 34:10 mentions very clearly:"**And there arose no more a prophet in Israel **like unto Moses, whom the Lord knew face to face, in all the signs and wonders,"

and that is for future of Israel, for past (prior to Moses) and also in the times of Moses it would be just meaningless. So it pertains to future for sure, and even now in our own times whosoever reads this passage as long as OTBible is there and one who reads it their, for sure.

No,it does not pertain to the future. It is not a prophecy.

For Jesus it is most pertinently applicable, as he was a Jew and a Jewish Pharisee as they say,

Jesus was not a Pharisee.

he must have read it time and again, yet he could neither delete it if he considered himself superior to Moses, nor he could issue a straight refutation of this verse with reference to it. He was, as our Catholic friends would believe, the only claimant of being superior to Moses,

No. He was acknowledged to be the Messiah by Peter and by the other apostles,and by Martha.

yet he did not fulfill this duty.

So surely he was not superior to Moses.

Had he been superior to Moses or his miracles superior to the ProphetMessenger Moses?

Yes. Jesus restored sight to a man born blind,made the crippled walk,multiplied the bread and fish to feed five thousand people,and raised Lazarus from the dead.

He would have said that he would show superior signs that Moses had shown as he was superior to Moses,
but he chose an ordinary ProphetMessenger Jonah with no signs comparable to Moses.

He chose an appropriate sign – Jonah was in the bowels of the whale for three days,and Jesus was in the bowels of the earth for three days. A signs points to something greater and more important than itself. Jonah was not raised from the dead,but Jesus was raised from the dead.

My Catholic friends should pause a little here, and think unbiased; they would realize that the status of Jesus was higher to Jonah, accepted without doubt, but lesser to Moses.

Moses was the Principal Prophet who was given Torah by GodAllahYHWH and Jesus was a subordinate Prophet,

Where in the Bible does it say he was a subordinate prophet?

as was also Jonah, who were sent to revive the Torah.

Jonah was not sent to revive the Torah.

I think it is reasonable, however, no compulsion.

Thanks

**Since Jesus left no written Word of GodAllahYHWH revealed on him, or authenticated by him when he last departed from Galilee;

Jesus Christ is the Word of God. He wrote his law on the hearts of his disciples,as it was prophesied in the Old Testament.**

 

[paarsurrey]

Paarsurrey:
We can see that Deuteronomy 34:10 mentions very clearly:“And there arose no more a prophet **in Israel ** like unto Moses, whom the Lord knew face to face, in all the signs and wonders,” and that is for future of Israel, for past (prior to Moses) and also in the times of Moses it would be just meaningless. So it pertains to future for sure, and even now in our own times whosoever reads this passage as long as OTBible is there and one who reads it their, for sure.
For Jesus it is most pertinently applicable, as he was a Jew he must have read it time and again, yet he could neither delete it if he considered himself superior to Moses, nor he could issue a straight refutation of this verse with reference to it. He was, as our Catholic friends would believe, the only claimant of being superior to Moses, yet he did not fulfill this duty. So surely he was not superior to Moses.
There arose an occasion to announce on the subject, when he wanted to show a sign to the adulterous Jews,. Had he been superior to Moses or his miracles superior to the ProphetMessenger Moses, he would have said that he would show superior signs that Moses had shown as he was superior to Moses, but he chose an ordinary ProphetMessenger Jonah with no signs comparable to Moses.

anthony022071:
Yes.

1. Jesus restored sight to a man born blind
2. made the crippled walk
3. multiplied the bread and fish to feed five thousand people
4. and raised Lazarus from the dead.

Hi

All these miracles are shared by one/ or some other Prophets lesser than Moses in one form or the other, so even if Jesus showed them, that does not make him superior to Moses. For example the last one, it is shared equally or even exceeded by Elisha.

Elisha raised a dead.

2 Kings 4:35-37 35 Elisha turned away and walked back and forth in the room and then got on the bed and stretched out upon him once more. The boy sneezed seven times and opened his eyes. 36 Elisha summoned Gehazi and said, “Call the Shunammite.” And he did. When she came, he said, “Take your son.” 37 She came in, fell at his feet and bowed to the ground. Then she took her son and went out.
Even dead body of Elisha raised a dead.
2 Kings 13:21
21 Once while some Israelites were burying a man, suddenly they saw a band of raiders; so they threw the man’s body into Elisha’s tomb. When the body touched Elisha’s bones, the man came to life and stood up on his feet.

My Catholic friend, there is no text/verse except the one I quoted from OTBible that Moses was the greatest Prophet among Israelis; none has been raised yet from Jews.

First please present some text of claim from OTBible, then a reason from OTBible.

Thanks
Adam did make a mistake, but since he repented and was forgiven by GodAllahYHWH so it cannot be called a sin.

anthony022071:

 

[anthony022071]

Hi

All these miracles are shared by one/ or some other Prophets lesser than Moses in one form or the other, so even if Jesus showed them, that does not make him superior to Moses. For example the last one, it is shared equally or even exceeded by Elisha.

None of the prophets gave sight to a man born blind,or multiplied loaves and fish for thousands of people,or made the crippled to walk,or gave hearing and speech to a deaf and dumb man,or expelled demons from people.
Jesus raised Lazarus to life after he had been dead for four days.
And after Jesus had died and was raised from the dead,the apostles performed miracles in his name.

Elisha raised a dead.

2 Kings 4:35-37 35 Elisha turned away and walked back and forth in the room and then got on the bed and stretched out upon him once more. The boy sneezed seven times and opened his eyes. 36 Elisha summoned Gehazi and said, “Call the Shunammite.” And he did. When she came, he said, “Take your son.” 37 She came in, fell at his feet and bowed to the ground. Then she took her son and went out.
Even dead body of Elisha raised a dead.
2 Kings 13:21
21 Once while some Israelites were burying a man, suddenly they saw a band of raiders; so they threw the man’s body into Elisha’s tomb. When the body touched Elisha’s bones, the man came to life and stood up on his feet.

My Catholic friend, there is no text/verse except the one I quoted from OTBible that Moses was the greatest Prophet among Israelis; none has been raised yet from Jews.

First please present some text of claim from OTBible, then a reason from OTBible.

Present a claim for what?

Deuteronomy 34,10 does not refer to the future. It refers to the time up to when Deuteronomy was written.

 

[Khalfan]

In those times, nearly two thousand years ago, the Jews counted any part of a day as a whole day when computing any consecutive periods of time. As Jesus was laid in the tomb on the Friday afternoon, was there throughout the Saturday, and only rose sometime before dawn on the Sunday (the Sunday having officially started at sunset on the Saturday according to the Jewish calendar), there can be no doubt that he was in the tomb for a period of three days. “three days and three nights”, in Jewish terminology, did not necessarily imply a full period of three actual days and three actual nights but was simply a colloquialism used to cover any part of the first and third days. A good example of this is found in the Book of Esther where the queen said that no one was to eat or drink for three days, night or day (Esther 4.16), but on the third day, when only two nights had passed, she went into the king’s chamber and the fast was ended.

Would you mind responding to post no 121?

 

[adrift]

Hi
So my Catholic friends having no original text in Hebrew or Aramaic, translate from Greek or Latin, as they want. We do not translate Bible and the one quoted by me is also a Christian/Jewish translation. This speaks volumes:
“And there arose no more a prophet in Israel like unto Moses, whom the Lord knew face to face, in all the signs and wonders, which he sent by him, to do in the land of Egypt to Pharaoh, and to all his servants, and to his whole land, and all the mighty hand, and great miracles, which Moses did before all Israel” (Deuteronomy 34:10 sqq.)
So, it proves that Jesus could not be a greater Prophet than Moses. Peace

Your mistake is many but one in particular is Jesus is God. Moses is created by God so he could never be higher than Jesus. Jesus was not a prophet.

 

[inJESUS]

In book of Esther, she said 3 days, not 3 days and 3 nights. It was the night between them what she meant by ‘day or night’. 3 days and the nights between them was not to eat.

am sorry i didn’t understand your question so i’ll quote from the book of Esther:

“Go and assemble all the Jews who are in Susa; fast on my behalf, all of you, not eating or drinking, night or day, for three days. I and my maids will also fast in the same way. Thus prepared, I will go to the king, contrary to the law. If I perish, I perish!”
And then in 5.1: "On the third day Esther put on her royal robes and stood in the inner courtyard, facing the palace doorway. "

In this case, **“on the third day” **= “for three days, night or day”.

Do you have any other example to merge day and night?