R
royal_archer
Guest
in a case like this, and the lack of intimate relations alone, would it be possible for the husband to get an annulment.
No.in a case like this, and the lack of intimate relations alone, would it be possible for the husband to get an annulment.
Yeah but you need to eat no matter how much you hate it unless something is seriously wrong with you mentally eventually hunger will win over and you will eat. I do think she needs to go to the doctor though…course the funny thing is with me going to the doctor I think is what caused many problems in that um area. But I am sure I am an unusual case.Lol, you find sexual intercourse not pleasurable and have never achieved an orgasm…
So therefore you wonder if you can just avoid having sex?
Would you think this way about any other part of your body? What if you found eating to be a horrible experience and you were always underweight. I guess you would just look for an excuse not to eat?
If other body parts weren’t working, you would be calling your doctor, anxiously looking for a solution.
How can a woman give anything to anyone against her will? If it’s against her will, it’s not a gift, is it?Quote:
Originally Posted by buffalo
You should not deny your husband since it is an act of giving yourself totally.
This is a view I find abhorrant and revolting.
It means a woman should give her body to her husband, wether or not her free will is involved.
You claim a woman MUST give herself WILLINGly.
That is a contradiction in terms and a complete and utter lack of respect for female needs.
This is why so many woman have rejected religion.
If annulment is out of the question what recourse is available to the spouse who is being denied?
Why would the person being denied have any more right to “break the bond that only God can break” than the person doing the denying?If annulment is out of the question what recourse is available to the spouse who is being denied?
But by entering a mariage both parties agreed willingly already. Mariage is a lifetime commitment of an intimate nature. If one of the parties is no longer willing to honnor the commitment can you consider the mariage to be in tact?This is a view I find abhorrant and revolting.
It means a woman should give her body to her husband, wether or not her free will is involved.
You claim a woman MUST give herself WILLINGly.
That is a contradiction in terms and a complete and utter lack of respect for female needs.
This is why so many woman have rejected religion.
My question is: is this a real marriage? It seems that one person already backed out of the marriage when they shut off intimacy. If the marriage is over the remaining spouse has a right to be remarried, right? Based on the OPs post both parties agreed to the relationship and then years later one party made a unilateral decision that they would not have marrital relations. It seems like the one being denied should have some redress in the situation, right? Of course this is a hypothetical discusion since we don’t have all of the background details.Why would the person being denied have any more right to “break the bond that only God can break” than the person doing the denying?
If the marriage is a real marriage, then it’s an unbreakable bond, except by God via death.
One needn’t live with someone who would rather not be married while being married, but both parties are still obligated to be chaste, as are all people at all times.
Beg to differ. There is a defective intention in the nullity process called “error in person”. At least that is what it was called ten years ago or so.
An annullment is not out of the question. I refer to my above post.If annulment is out of the question what recourse is available to the spouse who is being denied?
I basically agree with this, but there are exceptions.You should not deny your husband since it is an act of giving yourself totally.
I spot two fallacies. First, strawman. Both spouses have the obligation. That it comes up more for men than for women is incidental (and, I suspect, at least somewhat due to cultural pressure). Second, ambiguity. “Must,” in this context, refers to obligation, not freedom. The each spouse is totally free to give herself or not, just as I am free to punch someone in the face or not. Not that the two acts are the same, but in both cases, you have the freedom to perform the action that you want. However, one of the actions you should do, and the other you should not. You should not sin, even though you can. You should share yourself with your spouse, even though you are free to withhold.You claim a woman MUST give herself WILLINGly.
That is a contradiction in terms and a complete and utter lack of respect for female needs.
You seem to have a wrong understanding of a decree of nullity. It applies to a defect at the time the marriage vows were exchanged, not anything that happens during the marriage.If annulment is out of the question what recourse is available to the spouse who is being denied?
Of course it is a real marriage.My question is: is this a real marriage? It seems that one person already backed out of the marriage when they shut off intimacy.
A marriage is not over until one spouse dies.If the marriage is over the remaining spouse has a right to be remarried, right?
No. There is no “redress” in the way you mean. Marriage is for life. Marriage is for life, for better or worse, in sickness and in health. The husband must stand by his wife, help her through the issues, but ultimately remain faithful no matter what.Based on the OPs post both parties agreed to the relationship and then years later one party made a unilateral decision that they would not have marrital relations. It seems like the one being denied should have some redress in the situation, right?
There is nothing in the OP’s post that indicates there was an error in person or deception. Please refrain from making up huge hypothetical situations. Royal archer asked if the woman simply withdrawing (“the lack of intimate relations alone”) would be grounds for nullity. The answer to that is “no.”Beg to differ. There is a defective intention in the nullity process called “error in person”. At least that is what it was called ten years ago or so.
Error in person means that the person one marries is not the person he/she believed the other to be.
There is nothing to indicate such a conversation occurred. And, before marriage how would one know if one “enjoyed sex” since one is not having sex? Hmmm…For instance in the courtship period, one party tells another that they enjoy sex and look forward to a fulfilling relationship,
They have certainly have been having sex. They have children. She does not desire sex anymore, and does not enjoy it. They should work together to find a solution. But, this is NOT a case of “deception”.and then after the marriage, says, sorry, I don’t really like sex and I am not going to have it.;
"That case"is not **this **case. You’ve made up all of this.In that case there is a deception that affected the free choice of the other partner to enter into the marriage.
Again, the OP’s situation is not the situation you describe.t’s a little like defective intention against children. One partner says they want children and then after the marriage informs the other partner that they really don’t, they just said that to get the wronged partner to marry.
There was no deception here, based on the OP’s post.The sacrament of matrimony is only confected by the free, willing, and informed consent of both parties. It is akin to the civil legal principle of informed consent. If there is a serious and actual deception “pulled” on the other party, the church will investigate that as a condition affecting the free choice of the parties and will consider finding for the petitioner for the decree of nullity, and grant an annullment.
Read royalarchers original question. It states, “In a case like this”… it did not say, “in this case”"That case"is not **this **case. You’ve made up all of this.