Sinless Mary and the Bible

  • Thread starter Thread starter Sime
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
Cachonga:

I guess I don’t have anything else to say, I see that the Church proclaims the truth in general based upon a number of evidences and I see the proclamation of the Immaculate Conception as having scriptural support and that we should accept it based upon the Church’s authority, which yes yields insight into the scripture, but if the dogma wasn’t true then there wouldn’t be support for it found in scripture. I recognize though that you don’t accept the Church’s authority because I guess you reject it on other grounds than just the Immaculate Conception which I was trying to get at and you thererfore don’t see the scriptural support for the dogma as well as not accepting the Church’s authority.
 
Cachonga:

I have given you evidence for the Immaculate Conception which I consider to be good enough on its own. But if you don’t find good enough I think there is substantially enough evidence that the Church is correct in her teachings that even if there wasn’t good evidence for the Immaculate Conception I still trust the Church’s proclamation.
🙂
Cachonga:

I guess I don’t have anything else to say, I see that the Church proclaims the truth in general based upon a number of evidences and I see the proclamation of the Immaculate Conception as having scriptural support and that we should accept it based upon the Church’s authority, which yes yields insight into the scripture, but if the dogma wasn’t true then there wouldn’t be support for it found in scripture. I recognize though that you don’t accept the Church’s authority because I guess you reject it on other grounds than just the Immaculate Conception which I was trying to get at and you thererfore don’t see the scriptural support for the dogma as well as not accepting the Church’s authority.
Perhaps you will have more to say; just not now. 🙂

The pope was not convinced of the immaculate conception based on Luke 1:28 alone, and the tradition of the Churches was strongly for Mary’s sinlessness even to the time of Augustine. Only very few of the church fathers (St. Thomas being the worst…) dared to even consider the question – and Thomas held both views; to his detriment. (See ruling on Roe V. Wade, St. Thomas is cited there as well… 😦 ).

But, regarding the Logic of the necessity that one could be given the grace of salvation without necessity of the sacrifice on account of sin, THAT is where the pope became convinced of Mary’s sinlessness.

If God is totally just, then sin must be repaid. His son, then, PAID the price – and did not receive God’s mercy; but bore the price of sin.
However, God is also merciful – but if not even ONE person was given the gift without payment being required, God can’t be said to be merciful. He did not have mercy on his only son – but made him pay. Hence, in order for God to be merciful – there must be at least one person that he had the fullness of mercy on – eg: (NON stingy, partial mercy – but still demanding payment.)

There is a psalm to mediate on to grasp the sheer IRONY of the argument of saying all sin; See psalm 13/14 or 52/53. They are, if you look, the same psalm – so important that it was written down twice, with only the slightest variations. But the opening line gives it’s testimony –
“The FOOL says in his heart, there is no God, Warped natures everywhere and hateful lives! There is not an innocent man among them.”

And this may be read in two ways; that there is not an innocent dis-believer in God, or that the fool believes all men are guilty. Read both psalms, carefully, and multiple versions…

For this reason, consider the reversal carefully when God says: “What wonder if fear unmans them, when the Lord takes the part of** the** innocent?”,

Notice again, it means both possibilities – for there is at least one innocent mentioned in scripture; esp: Even in these, the most dire, of psalms.

Now, think again – In the Magnificat, Where Mary herself calls these things to mind. In particular, where she calls to mind God’s mercy. That is what convinced the pope, God’s mercy requiring a place to rest, on at least one person, without need for payment first. That’s the point of the doctrine of the Immaculate conception – and I mean the mother, and then the son. For although the latter is the incarnation – none the less, both are immaculate. Without the Son, there could be no salvation – without the mother, there could be no mercy.

If there could be a mistake, it could only rest on believing that one chosen to be his mother was not worthy above all other’s to receive this special, and singular mercy, in preference to the rest of us.

I don’t need to blindly believe what the Church says about the Immaculate conception; I need to obey regardless of any doubts – and obedience is wisdom;

Matth 8:9 For I am a man under authority, having soldiers under me: and I say to this man, Go, and he goes! and to another, Come!, and he comes!; and to my servant, Do this, and he does it.
Matth 8:10 When Jesus heard it, he marveled, and said to them that followed, AMEN I say unto you, I have never found so great a faith; not in Israel.

I, too, have authority over my head; almost as Cachonga says “Believe or else” – or more accurately, “do not vent publicly your doubts” or else…!

But, I do believe – though I once doubted. God is merciful, and does not demand payment for everything. If this be a “tradition” of men, it is also a tradition of God. Honor your mother.
 
That is very interesting. I had not heard that argument. Of course we believe that Mary still died though (or at least that is generally held and was held by Blessed John Paul II).
 
Look–if you can’t trust Christ’s Church when it comes to what is true teaching and what isn’t–aren’t you just making it all up anyway you choose?

If there isn’t an authority on Earth then God is unknowable!
 
Cachonga:
In light of 2 Tim 3:16-17, I would assert that we have everything we need in Scripture to live a successful Christian life.
Really? Chapter and verse where Jesus taught everything we need will be in Scripture to live a successful life?
 
That is very interesting. I had not heard that argument. Of course we believe that Mary still died though (or at least that is generally held and was held by Blessed John Paul II).
That point is undefined. Death, in one sense, existed since the beginning – but man did not have to suffer it. In a compare and contrast way – If one looks at the book of Revelation, for example – St. John uses the same wording of the law given to Adam when he mentions the second death which ends in the lake of fire.

But, both the bringing forth of Eve from Adam’s side, and the donation of body (and soul which animates the seed being donated), is a death in the ancient sense of understanding. Somehing is lost in order that a new thing may begin. A seed of a fruit, for example, in order to be fertile – has to die in order that a new plant spring forth. Either the seed remains a single seed – or as a seed it dies to bring forth a new plant. In our modern conception, this isn’t death – but in the ancient one, it is death. Jesus explicitly uses this meaning in his talk about the grain falling into the ground and dying that it may bring forth a rich harvest.

With respect to both Mary and Jesus, death of the first kind does not represent the reign of sin. One can suffer for the sake of another, or for the bringing forth of life, without being under the dominion of sin and second death. Jesus, however, took on our sin in order to pay the price of our redemption – Mary, did not. Jesus’ death was brutal and painful – but all tradition says regarding Mary (even though it is not church teaching, or a point one must believe) is that she peacefully fell asleep and did not wake up for a period of days, after which roses were found and she no longer was there. One is, of course, free to believe she was assumed while truly sleeping though unconscious, or that other scenarios happened that simply weren’t reported.

God says, and this is the dividing line about the reign of Sin (which could not possibly hold Jesus) – “I will not suffer my faithful one to see corruption.”

If you have a mind to do it – search out the incorruptible saints, and if PJP II’s tastes suit you – perhaps the recent events concerning St. Theresa of Calcutta (that I have heard of – but not researched fully) – will be of great interest. In Scripture, Also consider Enoch and Elijah. There is both a biblical and historical manifestation of God’s promise to those truly faithful that can be found if one but looks.
 
Yes i am familiar with the incorrupitbles but i( guess my question is regarding the type of death that entered the world through Adam’s sin. The Church teaches that we die due to Original Sin. Would you say that this is physical death or agonizing death? Would Adam and Eve had still died or remained immortal?
 
Yes i am familiar with the incorrupitbles but i( guess my question is regarding the type of death that entered the world through Adam’s sin. The Church teaches that we die due to Original Sin. Would you say that this is physical death or agonizing death? Would Adam and Eve had still died or remained immortal?
Without sin, Adam as a whole in his physical body would not die. His spirit had the power to maintain his body indefinitely. But because his spirit was wounded mortally, (because of sin), Adam’s spirit could no longer hold his body alive indefinitely – incorruptible.

That, in my mind, however – is a separate issue from whether or not it was possible for Adam’s body to die partially before the fall; or whether he could in any way suffer physically or mentally.

In the garden, pre-fall, there clearly was fruit, with it’s seed in it; a living thing, which could die by being consumed. The seed too, could die to spring forth a new tree. The body of Adam, itself, was made to consume fruit – his body was to accept changing material/substance into his mouth which his spirit would then form into himself; into his physical soul / his “own” substance – but then, in addition, some of this substance (slime of the earth?) would pass on.

I see no reason to believe that the body itself, as we have it, was transformed into something entirely different during the fall – but I know it was damaged.

Adam’s seed (sperma) too, was to be given to his wife – and it would no longer be his immediate body, it too would die as a sperm – a living soul in it’s own right, but doomed to dissipate once outside his body (also his wife’s) –
Sperm, on it’s own – has only an animal soul. It has only one radical possibility for new life inside Adam’s wife. Inside her body.

The seed, as matter becomes a new sprit’s first body; it’s first substance to consume from it’s parents. (Not to mention breast milk a little later…).

This is one reason that I think procreation is meant to be in the body – and not a glass dish.

Jesus himself, in his glorified body, after the resurrection, (which surely surpasses that of Adam!!!) – Ate fish and bread. (Luke 24:41-44, John 21:9, etc.) Jesus took a substance from outside his body, and made it into his body.
(The fish died, it’s shape disintegrated … no? :))

The is true even in the Eucharist – in which Jesus transforms bread into his living body, formed by his spirit – miraculous precisely in that he does not do it the normal way (as we do) by eating it – but otherwise, the trans-formation/substantiation has the same significance. No time machine is necessary to find the substance of the Eucharist which becomes his body – it is his Spirit which gives the matter of today his life.

Spirit + matter = body/soul. The flesh (itself) is useless:
The bread’s atom’s sameness before and after the transubstantiation are irrelevant – the crucial issue is what holds them in existence and form; he forms them with his Spirit is what it means that they are his body.

Consider also, that we too are his living body by communion – and that even at the crucifixion – his body lived on in those who had already received communion previously (before his physical death and suffering).

His spouse the Church, the apostles, the twelve, etc. did not simultaneously die physically when Jesus did – but they did become a living sacrifice because they are his.

St. Thomas, IMHO, went nuts trying to figure out what Jesus body’s death meant in detail; was it alive physically, but in stasis? What does it mean, that the crucified body is the Eucharist? Is this dead (?) different from all other times when he moved about? Which body and bodily state do we receive in the sacrifice of the mass?

These questions, I find most easily answered in recognizing that the body (soul) is not primarily that which was or passed on before, it is what the spirit is forming in the present; and is forming if in the resurrection. The body may even cease to exist for a time, here on Earth; So long as the spirit can form it anew.

IF you like the time machine view of the Eucharist, that’s fine – I’m just saying – it isn’t necessary; awe inspiring, but not as helpful in unifying ideas.

I think your question would best be answered by focusing on what it means that Jesus should say (John 6:33, 50 “The bread which comes down from heaven is such that he who eats of it will never die”, and then consider that we still “fall asleep” as St. Paul puts it.

CCC 388 … We must know Christ as the source of grace in order to know Adam as the source of sin.

Now: Can you accept reading these things we are discussing backward in time into Adam who couldn’t die ?

Chirst (unqualified) merely means king, ruler, anointed; in this sense, Adam too was a christ, a shadow of Christ. But – The CCC (386), says in addition “We must therefore approach the question of the origin of evil [comment: AKA death] by fixing the eyes of our faith on him who alone is its conqueror”; footnote Luke 11:21-22.

“When a strong man, fully armed, mounts guard over his own palace, his goods are left in peace; but when a man comes who is stronger still, he will take away all the armor that bred such confidence, and divide among others the spoils of victory”

There is sometimes mentioned by Catholic Apologists of acute perception, that Adam was to do what Jesus Christ did – and failed.

How exactly this relates to Christ (who without sin) suffered death, I don’t know. But I do know that there was a fallen angel, which as an angel was stronger than man (man, recall, was made a little lower than the angels).
The devil was found in the garden before Adam ever sinned.

Q: What then if Adam had not sinned? A: I don’t think Adam without assistance could have withstood a direct attack unharmed; not that the harm would have been permanent or capable of destroying Adam in the sense of eternal complete slavery or corruption – but in outward physical appearances, I am not sure that it wouldn’t (or rather couldn’t?) have resembled death, or at least sleep of a non-natural kind.

The power of death consists in the body & spirit being held captive for all eternity; That is something Adam could not have suffered, nor Christ; As St. Paul says, “it is impossible that the power of death could hold him” (Nor Jesus momentary body, evidently…)

At the time of Adam; What “would” have happened, or how or when God “would” have intervened (or perhaps, merely how/when the good Angels would have defended us) is something impossible to know – as it didn’t happen. Man’s natural state, in friendship with God, was capable of maintaining a natural body indefinitely; Therefore – Man would not have died on his own; But there was an external threat of significant potency.

I hope this helps; perhaps your own priest – or bishop – may have insights that I am unaware of; This is (of course) merely my best understanding of scripture and Tradition, and my own attempts to harmonize them. A simplistic view is to just assume the devil couldn’t have even killed the body of Adam temporarily, or held it at all. In that case, the answer to your question is “No: he wouldn’t have died”.

Your brother in Christ,
–Andrew.
 
Please tell me how, as an unregenerated sinner, your soul could magnify the Lord.

Sorry it twas you that missed the point of the scripture.
Tell me what you understand with the word “magnify”?
 
Look–if you can’t trust Christ’s Church when it comes to what is true teaching and what isn’t–aren’t you just making it all up anyway you choose?

If there isn’t an authority on Earth then God is unknowable!
With this kind of reasoning, how can you justify that your Church is legit as opposed to someone elses?
 
Jerry Jet -
Listen, there was no "establishment of the “catholic church” during the times of Abraham and he was considered to be a righteous man of God because of his faith in God - so God is very real and He makes himself real to those who have an open heart and are willing to follow his ways - the “church” teaching - is not necessarily Christ’s teaching - Christ did not teach that only "Catholics are allowed to receive him. Christ did not teach that you must receive him in that fashion alone - we all believe that those who surrender their heart, as God’s Word says - to him alone, a person is blessed with the Holy Spirit and he then becomes “born again” and accepted into the Kingdom of God - and as a result is not a Son, a Child of God. Do not doubt his presence in people. God dwells in our bodies, our temples must remain clean before him -thank God for his death, that made us right before the Living God. It is the Holy Spirit that a church should be led by…not man’s wisdom. May God reveal his mind to you further in Jesus’ name I pray. 2 Timothy 3:16
Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness. It is by God’s Word that one gains faith and it is only by the name of Jesus that was is healed and restored. A living relationship is what helps us gain more life in him, and that did not mean that you must go to a catholic church to have an authentic living relationship.
 
Huiou Theou:

Thank you for you for drawn out response. I believe the Church teaches though that suffering entered the world through Adam’s sin so would this mean he couldn’t have been physically wounded or do you think this means spiritual agony along with the suffering?

I think some theologians hold to the total physical view and some hold to the sprititual view which you seem to be alluding to.

Also you don’t argue that the Mass is something from the past but it is Jesus’s sacrifice made present how would you explain that?

Thanks
 
Huiou Theou:

Thank you for you for drawn out response. I believe the Church teaches though that suffering entered the world through Adam’s sin so would this mean he couldn’t have been physically wounded or do you think this means spiritual agony along with the suffering?
I don’t know; we’d have to look at the particular church teaching you are thinking of. Physical pain is not always a bad thing, eg: an evil – it is simply an extreme of being able to feel at all. I have never heard it said that Adam was anesthetic during waking hours…

BUT: Adam’s being able to by physically wounded is tied to the power of the one doing the wounding. Consider: Clearly, in taking the rib out of Adam’s side – he was wounded in the sense of medical surgery; but it was also closed up by the one doing the wounding. Of course, Adam was put to sleep for the operation… God’s not cruel.

So, I’m stuck and forced to go back to what I tried to say before regarding the power of the devil; as an angel – he surpasses us; The devil certainly afflicted Job, struck his wife dead, etc. but only with permission…

IT boils down to this - if God forbade it, Adam couldn’t have been wounded. IF God allowed him to be pricked – he could only receive a prick.
But, there is nothing I am aware of that says Adam himself was intrinsically incapable (without God’s assistance, and possibly that of the good angels) of being harmed.

He could not be harmed because of God, eg: the friendship and justice he shared with God.

Look up the church teaching, and see what the context is – how much depth it goes into. Sometimes theological opinion gets mistaken for church teaching.

The sufferings of child birth, literally the “griefs” and the “groanings” were added to Eve on account of her part in the sin. So clearly the fall brought at least some sufferings with it – but that too says “I will increase”; suggesting that other sufferings were possible if she had not fallen in this particular way.
I don’t know, for example, that Adam’s children would not also have been put to the test even if Adam had succeeded… I don’t recall the church ever ruling that out…

Perhaps you can look around for both of us on that question?
I think some theologians hold to the total physical view and some hold to the sprititual view which you seem to be alluding to.
Also you don’t argue that the Mass is something from the past but it is Jesus’s sacrifice made present how would you explain that?
Jesus is offering himself eternally to the father; that’s what Hebrew’s is saying.
The sacrifice was made once (bloodily) and is now alive and offered in eternity.
He is a living sacrifice.

His offering himself in heaven is what we understand since the day of his ascent.

There is a difference between being butchered and being sacrificed and being A sacrifice …

Consider, Canabalism is wrong in the sense that one deprives another of a living body which they need; one kills another to eat them. But contrast that to an infant who technically eats/drinks it’s mother’s body (the fluid, the milk) and that isn’t canabalism.

In a more profound way, the Eucharist is meant for us – and we are meant to be a sacrifice. By accepting the Eucharist – you agree to be a living sacrifice yourself; You are the Body of Chirst, Jesus – too.

Roman 12:1.

Does this still puzzle you? How?
 
Catechism paragraph 376 says: As long as her remained in the divine intimacy, man would not have to suffer and die.

If Adam could still suffer wounds though they would be healed. Also God told Adam “you are dust and to dust you shall return” indicating that the Fall results in his physical death unless of course you interpret it to mean that he would have returned from the dust in the state of Original Justice as Christ did. Jesus as the second Adam though did die. Unless you interpret His death as not the type of death that Adam brought on but I don’t think that we can do that because Christ suffered death for us.

Eve’s pains were “increased” but that does not mean that she would have suffered pain before the Fall necessarily because that curse was pronounced after the Fall so pains could have set in at that point.

Paragraph 1367 says: The sacrafice of Christ and the sacrafice of the Eucharist are one single sacrafice: "The victim is one and the same…only the manner of offering is different…the same Christ who offered Himself once in a bloody manner on the altar of the cross is contained and is offered in an unbloody manner.

So the Catechism does not make strict regards for these matters which is why there is debate I guess.
 
Catechism paragraph 376 says: As long as her remained in the divine intimacy, man would not have to suffer and die.
Right, divine “intimacy”. That word means a “relationship”, and also found in that paragraph is the word “grace” – meaning both a gift and a thanking; Eu-Charist (Good Gift and also Thanking Well). Grace is automatically a reciprocity – a relationship.
If Adam could still suffer wounds though they would be healed.
I lost your thought here… If – then?
Also God told Adam “you are dust and to dust you shall return” indicating that the Fall results in his physical death unless of course you interpret it to mean that he would have returned from the dust in the state of Original Justice as Christ did.
We need to be careful to distinguish that the saying “you will return to dust” (a result of the fall) from from “you are dust”.

Dust itself is merely the substance that the spirit of man continuously forms into his body. (And that dust, itself, may be exchanged over time by eating/etc.) The body itself, however, is not the dust alone; but its form (and in some way – its formation) as well.

So, yes – Adam would have resurrected given the hypothesis that God allowed him to be momentarily struck. That’s the implication that I gather from some rather astute apologists concerning Adam being the first Christ ::: Adam failed to do as Christ did.

There is no guarantee that God ever would have allowed Adam to be struck – but at the same time, there is a line of apologetic that takes the possibility (or if you will Adam’s ignorance of his own immunity) as background of the story. I am sure that Adam could grasp the meaning of death, at least death as a change as in an eaten fruit; and therefore, Adam, might have correctly surmised that he himself could die (Otherwise, what Good is God’s command? A penalty with no meaning…?) But, without invoking that intimacy with God – and ASKING God at the moment of doubt, did Adam know he was totally immune? (Jesus prays in the Garden but not Adam?)

Scott Hahn, for example, appears to read the account of the fall where the devil says “you will not die … if you eat the fruit” as a threat from the devil to do grave harm should they not both eat. Scott appears (You may of course disagree) to understand that Eve was a hostage.

But Scott’s interpretation only works if Eve (at very least) could have been harmed…
Jesus as the second Adam though did die. Unless you interpret His death as not the type of death that Adam brought on but I don’t think that we can do that because Christ suffered death for us.
OY! yes. You are perceptive. That’s exactly where I get stuck – The church points us to the cross in order to understand Adam’s sin. Christ the “new” Adam was without sin – and he died for us – by taking ON our sin.

What then, if after Eve had eaten – that Adam had refused and took the consequences, whatever they were, of the Devil’s threat?

The devil may have had no power at all – except a bluff…
Adam may have been struck, only to rise in the morning as if he were but sleeping…
Eve may have suffered, and Adam resurrected her…

??? other hypothesis? hmm ???
Eve’s pains were “increased” but that does not mean that she would have suffered pain before the Fall necessarily because that curse was pronounced after the Fall so pains could have set in at that point.
:hmmm:
She had no childbirth at that time; the first birth is after the curse.
and … The pain is childbirth pain.

There were two things mentioned in the curse – the “grief” and the “groaning”; “Groaning” is not something that is necessarily a consequence of sin – it is merely an indicator of effort. The spirit Groans for us – in order that we grow, today. Also, I’m thinking – an, “increase”, is about growth.

I am also wondering if that passage is poetic in the original Hebrew…
Paragraph 1367 says: The sacrafice of Christ and the sacrafice of the Eucharist are one single sacrafice: "The victim is one and the same…only the manner of offering is different…the same Christ who offered Himself once in a bloody manner on the altar of the cross is contained and is offered in an unbloody manner.
So the Catechism does not make strict regards for these matters which is why there is debate I guess.
Exactly. The church defines things mostly in response to crisis.

The Spirit teaches us and reminds us (As it is said, “They will all be taught by God.”). I don’t believe (at least for now) it is God’s pleasure that all knowledge will be given through strict doctrinal teaching – he reserves some of it for personal delivery from himself; eg: in each person’s life and spirituality.

Not every child is raised exactly the same way by their parents…
🙂
 
I am wondring what you think the Catechism means by “suffering” are you saying that Adam and eve could have been struck but not have suffered? Though again I guess one could argue that agony disconnected from God is different than physical agony.

I understand the idea that Adam could be wounded but I think Thomistic thought (in some sense) is that he would be immediatly healed so I don’t see how he could physically die from this.

Where did Scott Hahn write that? It sounds pretty interesting.

In my text though the serpent says “You will not die; for God knows that when you eat of it your eyes will be opened” So the ‘if’ clause is not there but I guess it could be argued that it is implied.

I have felt that the way that Christ fulfilled where Adam failed is in His obedience to God. The only thing that Adam had to do was follow God’s one command in the pefect state and he failed. Christ had to live a perfect life in an imperfect state and follow God’s request which was much more difficult so I am not sure that Adam would have been asked to do what Christ was asked to do. Especially because the atonement was due to sin. If your theory implies that Adam had to do some form of penance then that would seem to imply that there was sin. But for humans there was no sin yet and the angels cannot be reconciled back to God because they made an eternal choice.

What is so interesting about the story of Adam and Eve though is (as I am sure you have noticed) is that it is the exact opposite of the story of the Redemption in each of its elements.

Something that I noticed from what you said is that Christ took Adam’s death. This is very intriguing because God told Adam that on that day he would die. Something that has perplexed people is that Adam did not die on that day. So some have speculated that Adam died a spiritual death, except that we recognize that Adam brought on physical death (of course that is also the crux of our discussion) but at the least we have to recognize that through Adam’s sin he brought some form of death that is worse than the one humanity would have had whether that death is physical or spiritual. The pelagians tried to say that Adam’s death was only his own and that it was only a spiritual death of the soul (I believe) but Augustine stated that he would return to dust and then Paul’s words in Romans tell us that Adam brought death upon everyone along with the Book of Wisdom.

Anyways, Adam clearly did not die on that day. So another explanation is that a day to God is thousand years to use and Adam didn’t quite make it to a thousand years as he lived into the 900’s. If we use Augustine’s other hermenuetic that whatever is left unfulfilled in the Old Testament is fulfilled by Christ in the New then we can see that Adam eventually died but not the death he should have on that day which is was then fulfilled by Christ who took on that death. It is also interesting that Christ’s word may fulfill this when He was on the cross and told the thief “today you will be with me in paradise” which is another passage that has been confounding but perhaps Christ was fulflling the words of reconcilliation all the way back to Genisis. One day fulfills the other. Or of course the word day could be taken in typological sense for the entire human fallen state as Hebrews says "exhort one another every day, as long as it is called ‘today’. So perhaps the day is now until Christ comes again.
 
I am wondring what you think the Catechism means by “suffering” are you saying that Adam and eve could have been struck but not have suffered? Though again I guess one could argue that agony disconnected from God is different than physical agony.

I understand the idea that Adam could be wounded but I think Thomistic thought (in some sense) is that he would be immediatly healed so I don’t see how he could physically die from this.
I haven’t thought it through that far – but Thomas seems reasonable on this point…

🙂 Really, I (personally) don’t have an explanation. Again, I’m referring to other apologists that I have come across – and most of them do not describe their thoughts in any depth on this point. (death of the body as a whole). It is an incidental comment/assumption.

I myself consider death of the body in part, as the only explanation possible in my personal view; and that kind of death does not imply definite suffering.

Suffering, again, is an extended event – so, agony is something I don’t grasp as being possible as a personal defect in one’s own body. However, there is a relationship between Adam and Eve, and unless we suppose (very unpopular today) that Adam mastered Eve’s body as well – it is quite possible that if she sinned, and he did not – that IN such a situation, there is a possibility that the marriage would have been wounded and psychological suffering would have followed – if not physical. Analogically, Jesus and the Church today; or Mary’s intercession on our behalf.
Where did Scott Hahn write that? It sounds pretty interesting.
I’ve read so many books it’s difficult to keep them straight.
I think its “A Father who keeps his promises”; Unfortunately, I don’t have my library with me to be able to check that for you. If it’s wrong, let me know – and I can post asking others to find it…
In my text though the serpent says “You will not die; for God knows that when you eat of it your eyes will be opened” So the ‘if’ clause is not there but I guess it could be argued that it is implied.
Yes, my English text says the same. That is simply how I remember Hahn’s remark.
I have felt that the way that Christ fulfilled where Adam failed is in His obedience to God. The only thing that Adam had to do was follow God’s one command in the pefect state and he failed. … snip …
🙂

Were drifting quite a bit in topic for this thread, so if you wish to continue the discussion perhaps we ought to start afresh. I agree with your outlook. There was something singular in the test for Adam.
If your theory implies that Adam had to do some form of penance then that would seem to imply that there was sin. But for humans there was no sin yet and the angels cannot be reconciled back to God because they made an eternal choice.
Yes, but where sin and holiness meet – there is opportunity for psychological suffering at least, and interference in justice where the two share a common media.

In heaven, note, there is to be a great chasm between those with God – and those without. As Abraham says in the parable of Lazarus – neither we nor you can cross it (even if they wanted to, they couldn’t is how I read it.)

I’ll let the rest go, unless you’d like to start another thread.
I’ve enjoyed the discussion.

Your brother in Christ, Jesus.
–Andrew.
 
Well I don’t really have much else to add. I am not sure though that in the story of Lazaurus that the rich man was in heaven (or would have been) it’s not clear whether he would have been in purgatory or hell though.
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top