So, if baptism is required for salvation, then why isn’t a lack of baptism the reason for condemnation?
South Bound. Perhaps it was assumed given the words of the previous sentence. The word “and” is a conjunctive.
One can not just dismiss the word. That’s doing harm to the text.
The text says
“He who believes AND is baptized will be saved”
You’re wanting the text to say
“He who believes-] AND is baptized/-] will be saved”
That’s changing scriptures meaning and we are warned not to do so.
The early Church understood the Catholic belief that water Baptism saves.
“[W]hen they come to us and to the Church which is one, ought to be baptized, for the reason that it is a small matter to ‘lay hands on them that they may receive the Holy Ghost,’ unless they receive also the baptism of the Church. For then finally can they be fully sanctified, and be the sons of God, if they be born of each sacrament; since it is written, ‘Except a man be born again of water, and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.’…[O]nly baptism of the holy Church, by divine regeneration, for the kingdom of God, may be born of both sacraments, because it is written, ‘Except a man be born of water** and** of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.’” Cyprian, To Stephen, 71:72 (A.D. 253).
“And in the Gospel our Lord Jesus Christ spoke with His divine voice, saying, “Except a man be born again of water
and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God.” This is the Spirit which from the beginning was borne over the waters; for neither can the Spirit operate without the water, nor the water without the Spirit…Unless therefore they receive saving baptism in the Catholic Church, which is one, they cannot be saved, but will be condemned with the carnal in the judgment of the Lord Christ.” Council of Carthage VII (A.D. 258).
They understood AND means AND.
PnP