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[did jesus write the bible?]
Yes. You wanna Know how? Look up the Nicene Creed (aka Apostle’s Creed).[did jesus write the bible?]
Jesus did not write one, single word of the bible. The bible tells of our salvation history and is a collection of inspired writting from various authors throughout the centuries. The Catholic Church assembled them into one volume.[did jesus write the bible?]
NO! Well sorta, maybe[did jesus write the bible?]
The thoughts and expressions are God’s but the words remain man’s. God is the Creator of the multiplicity of languages which are meant to confuse us, so I really doubt that He inspired some in Aramaic, then later switched to Greek. Just as God uses us to accomplish His purposes, He also uses our languages to convey His Truth.NO! Well sorta, maybe
READ 2 Tim. 3:15-17
Inspired is not dictation, nor is it direct authorship. But WHAT God wanted included in His Bible is exactly what is in the Bible; in the words of the authors under the direction of God Himself.
Love and prayers,
Pat
=po18guy;7327635]The thoughts and expressions are God’s but the words remain man’s. God is the Creator of the multiplicity of languages which are meant to confuse us, so I really doubt that He inspired some in Aramaic, then later switched to Greek. Just as God uses us to accomplish His purposes, He also uses our languages to convey His Truth.
So friend, is this your proclamation of disbeleif in God and His Bible?As to the OP, Jesus had three years in which to write, or even create a bible, yet He did not. The one time in which it is recorded that He wrote, no one described what it was (John 8:6). What He actually did was to make Apostles and send them forth to teach. A few of them wrote down a tiny bit of what Jesus said and did. The rest is contained in the deposit of faith of His Church.
No! Not at all! I expressed it poorly. What I was trying to say was that the languages in which scripture is written are not God’s language - the heavenly language - but man’s languages. Example: I don’t think that Matthew heard our Lord’s voice in Aramaic telling him word for word what to write (even though the Lord spoke clearly to them at Jesus’ baptism and at the Transfiguration). I am thinking that the Lord inspired the sentiment in the scripture writer’s spirit and the writers themselves then put quill to papyrus in their native language. Is this any clearer?So friend, is this your proclamation of disbeleif in God and His Bible?
Here is a video about how the bible came about:[did jesus write the bible?]
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Yeah, St. Paul and St. Peter have a lot to say about this in their writings in the NT.[did jesus write the bible?]
=po18guy;7328535]No! Not at all! I expressed it poorly. What I was trying to say was that the languages in which scripture is written are not God’s language - the heavenly language - but man’s languages. Example: I don’t think that Matthew heard our Lord’s voice in Aramaic telling him word for word what to write (even though the Lord spoke clearly to them at Jesus’ baptism and at the Transfiguration). I am thinking that the Lord inspired the sentiment in the scripture writer’s spirit and the writers themselves then put quill to papyrus in their native language. Is this any clearer?
Sincere thanks for the well done clairification!The point being that the bible is not a simple transcription of the exact words which our Lord dictated to the writers. Some Christians today allege something similar to this, in that they view the bible as a form of paper and ink “ten commandments” that was handed to the Church by God, and the Church had no involvement other than to pass it on. This, of course, completely discounts the authority of the Church to write, compile and canonize scripture into the bible.
The nature of the OP’s question brought this concern into my mind. It may have nothing at all to do with his question, though.