No it is not mere semantics. In your interpretation of Acts, Judas has already been dead for days when his body bursts open, because he hanged himself several days prior. If this were the case we would expect language like in Matthew 28:51-52
“At that moment the curtain of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom. The earth shook, the rocks split and the tombs broke open.
The bodies of many holy people who had died were raised to life.”
So Acts should read something like “Judas dead body fell headlong”, or “the body of Judas (who had died from hanging) fell headlong”. But of course, the author of Acts knows nothing about Matthews account of Judas death, and recounts another tradition.
Well, Judas couldn’t very well have bought the field with with the blood money, if he refused to accept it and threw it away!
In order for both explanations to be correct, Judas would have had to hang himself in the field he bought " with payment he received for his wickedness" (Acts 1:18). The problem is that Judas in Matthew’s account DID NOT BUY ANYTHING WITH THE PAYMENT.
He threw the money away, became suicidal and hanged himself. The pharisees later bought a field with the money Judas had thrown away, that is how it got its name. So you cannot have it both ways. Either Judas died in a field he bought for the blood money while alive, or he threw the money away and did not buy anything, but rather despaired and hanged himself. Furthermore, the idea that people independently came up with the same name for the field for wildly different reasons is unlikely in and of itself.
Yes, and acts says he died by his guts bursting open. You want to make it as if Acts doesn’t mention Judas dying, only what happened to his corpse several days after he actually died, but you’d never come up with such a strained reading of the text if you didn’t try force it into not contradicting Matthew.
Judas was not a condemned criminal… But presumably, nobody would have cut Judas down if he hanged himself in his own field. The problem, of course, is that Judas did not buy any field in Matthew’s account. Rather he threw the money away and hanged himself. The pharisees later bought the field.
This is wisful thinking.The greek here means “fell headlong”. It is his falling headlong that caused him to burst open. It is not a mistranslation. That is how it is universally translated in scores of different biblical translations. If you are going to claim that the vast majority of biblical translations in the world are wrong, you’ll need some very powerful evidence to demonstrate this… But I understand why it is problematic. There is no way his body fell headlong if the rope broke, and realizing this you desperately want the text to say something it does not say
Please note that
JUDAS THROWS THE MONEY AWAY IN MATTHEW’S ACCOUNT. Therefore
HE COULD NOT HAVE BOUGHT IT WITH THAT MONEY LIKE ACTS SAYS HE DID (ACTS 1:18). So this nonsense of physical vs. legal ownership completely misses the point: Acts says Judas bought the field with the money that Matthew says he trew into the temple, and by which the pharisees subsequently bought the field. That is a contradiction, plain and simmple.
And what the heck is physical ownership of a field anyway, as opposed to legal ownership?Please provide me with examples
from first century Israel by means of recognized scholarly sources.
None of the accounts are from eyewitness testimony. The point is that there were several traditions on how Judas died. They are contradictory. And two of them found their way into the bible.
BUT…
It doesn’t matter what I write. You will never admit a contradiction here. Your whole worldview rests on this idea of inspiration, and it will cause you immense doubt and pain if you realize that the bible is not inerrant. “If the New Testament is wrong here, what else is wrong?” So you cling to a false idea, so that you’ll continue to feel safe and secure. But it is all an illusion, and you are smart enough to see through it.
Thanks for the discussion.