So many bible contradictions that can't be explained away

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Pretty simple. Jesus spoke Aramaic. Maybe He spoke other languages as well, since He had been in Egypt and possibly to India.
Pray tell how the claim that Jesus was in India is more creditable then what you are arguing against. One would think someone who has issues with contradictions in and the accuracy of the Bible would have even less faith in far less verifible claims that Jesus went to India.
 
Pray tell how the claim that Jesus was in India is more creditable then what you are arguing against. One would think someone who has issues with contradictions in and the accuracy of the Bible would have even less faith in far less verifible claims that Jesus went to India.
Grasping at straws, are we? “…and possibly to India.”

There are books such as Faber-Kaiser’s Jesus Died in Kashmir and many others have put forward that idea. Ours, is after all, an Eastern religion, yes? Thank St. Paul that you are a Catholic. St “Peter” sure didn’t want that. And he knew Jesus directly, in the flesh. Go figure.

jesus-in-india-the-movie.com/

reluctant-messenger.com/issa.htm

And what if He did or He didn’t? How would it effect your faith? What do you make of those missing years, including His acknowledged time in Egypt, one of the most Mystery oriented cultures going? Justy that ought make one wonder. Along with some other anomalies, it makes for some points of remartkable interest.
 
Grasping at straws, are we? “…and possibly to India.”

There are books such as Faber-Kaiser’s Jesus Died in Kashmir and many others have put forward that idea. Ours, is after all, an Eastern religion, yes? Thank St. Paul that you are a Catholic. St “Peter” sure didn’t want that. And he knew Jesus directly, in the flesh. Go figure.

jesus-in-india-the-movie.com/

reluctant-messenger.com/issa.htm

And what if He did or He didn’t? How would it effect your faith? What do you make of those missing years, including His acknowledged time in Egypt, one of the most Mystery oriented cultures going? Justy that ought make one wonder. Along with some other anomalies, it makes for some points of remartkable interest.
Not grasping at straws, just wondering about your comfort in using two different sets of criteria in determining what you think is valid. I find it rather odd that there are no accounts of Jesus going on a long travel east, or coming back from one, or charges Jesus was teaching pagan beliefs, etc. One would think that individuals who wanted him dead enough to fabricate charges against him didn’t bother use his visit to pagan lands against him; or try to discredit his followers as pagans or claim Jesus fled back east.

As for your offered proof, thanks but I’ll stick to peer reviewed and widely accepted scholarly works.
 
This is a perfect example of a claim of contradiction when it is a misunderstanding. It is not a contradiction to describe two things that happened. Acts 1:18 describes what happened after Judas hanged himself in Matthew 27:5. Definition of a ‘contradiction’ means that one statement makes another statement untrue but both are said to be true. Acts 1:18 and Matthew 27:5 are not in contradiction. (…)
Did you even read what I wrote? First, you are doing exactly what I said. You are creating a third account neither Matthew or Luke had heard about. Why would Luke neglect to mention that Judas hanged himself if, in fact, that was what happened? Just because you can create some sort of “explanation” to make it appear (to your mind) that the accounts do not contradict one and other, you have no actual evidence that this explanation is true. It is a synthetic account without any evidence from history. Furthermore:
  1. The text in acts says that he fell headlong. Not “his body” fell headlong as if he was already dead. And of course, if the rope broke, there is no way he would fall headlong.
  2. Matthew says that Judas threw the money into the temple because he felt remorse for his betrayal and the pharisees bought a field for this blood money. Judas did not “indirectly” buy the field here, as he REJECTED the payment!
  3. Luke says that Judas bought the field himself with the money he got for his betrayal.
  4. Matthew says the field got its name because it was bought with blood money.
  5. Luke says the field got its name because of the incident where Judas intestines gushed out.
So there are several contradictions here:

a) How did judas die? Did he hang himself or did he fall headlong, bursting open and his guts spilling out?
b) What happened to the 30 pieces of silver? Did Judas keep them or throw them away?
c) Who bought the field? Did Judas or the pharisees buy it?
d) Why was the field called the field of blood? Because it was bought for blood money, or because of the peculiar way in which Judas died?

These are two different traditions of what happened to Judas. They are contradictory. And the only reason you won’t admit that is because they are found in the bible. Had they been found among the church fathers, you would not attempt such silly mental gymnastics to try to reconcile two contradictory accounts of Judas death.

BTW, the papias fragment I referred to is this:

“Judas lived his career in this world as an enormous example of impiety. He was so swollen in the flesh that he could not pass where a wagon could easily pass. Having been crushed by a wagon, his entrails poured out.”
 
Not grasping at straws, just wondering about your comfort in using two different sets of criteria in determining what you think is valid. I find it rather odd that there are no accounts of Jesus going on a long travel east, or coming back from one, or charges Jesus was teaching pagan beliefs, etc. One would think that individuals who wanted him dead enough to fabricate charges against him didn’t bother use his visit to pagan lands against him; or try to discredit his followers as pagans or claim Jesus fled back east.

As for your offered proof, thanks but I’ll stick to peer reviewed and widely accepted scholarly works.
Which two standards would I be using? Curiosity and curiosity? Spme of the accounts have been stated, Your refusal to look at them is not my double. standard. And I never claimed them to be Gospel truth, those being highly interpretive and referent to other ideas themselves. Bt one, at least this one, wonders how those stories came to be, as they are remarkable in thier iteration. And if you don’t want to read them, that’s fine, but how is that grounds for impuning my sense of wonder? You havew your faith as you accept it, and that’s fine. I have my questions about where He was for so many years and read/view material concerning that. How is miine therefore a double standard?
 
Did you even read what I wrote? First, you are doing exactly what I said. You are creating a third account neither Matthew or Luke had heard about. Why would Luke neglect to mention that Judas hanged himself if, in fact, that was what happened? Just because you can create some sort of “explanation” to make it appear (to your mind) that the accounts do not contradict one and other, you have no actual evidence that this explanation is true. It is a synthetic account without any evidence from history. Furthermore:
  1. The text in acts says that he fell headlong. Not “his body” fell headlong as if he was already dead. And of course, if the rope broke, there is no way he would fall headlong.
  2. Matthew says that Judas threw the money into the temple because he felt remorse for his betrayal and the pharisees bought a field for this blood money. Judas did not “indirectly” buy the field here, as he REJECTED the payment!
  3. Luke says that Judas bought the field himself with the money he got for his betrayal.
  4. Matthew says the field got its name because it was bought with blood money.
  5. Luke says the field got its name because of the incident where Judas intestines gushed out.
So there are several contradictions here:
  1. ‘He’ ‘the body’ - this is semantics.
  2. I think I answer this below in b) and c).
  3. How is this in ‘contradiction’ with another verse?
4 and 5) Why can’t both be correct? Maybe Matthew just has his reason and Luke has his. There is no contradiction. Chicago, for example is called the Windy city. Different people can probably think of different reasons for this; that Chicago has particularity windy weather; that Chicagoan politicians tend to be very talkative and brash; editor of the New York Sun used the term ‘windy city’ as an insult to Chicago when Chicago beat New York for the 1893 Worlds Fair; Cincinnati was first called the windy city and Chicago stole it out of rivalry etc.

Maybe different people have different reasons for calling Chicago the ‘windy city’ but it does not make any of these reasons incorrect or in contradiction.
a) How did judas die? Did he hang himself or did he fall headlong, bursting open and his guts spilling out?
b) What happened to the 30 pieces of silver? Did Judas keep them or throw them away?
c) Who bought the field? Did Judas or the pharisees buy it?
d) Why was the field called the field of blood? Because it was bought for blood money, or because of the peculiar way in which Judas died?
These are two different traditions of what happened to Judas. They are contradictory. And the only reason you won’t admit that is because they are found in the bible. Had they been found among the church fathers, you would not attempt such silly mental gymnastics to try to reconcile two contradictory accounts of Judas death.
a) Matthew 27:3-8 tells us specifically how Judas died, by hanging. Roman practice in Judas’ lifetime was that it was common for condemned criminals to be left hanging hanging, as a warning to others. His organs would of swelled and eventually his abdomen burst (Acts 1:18) and he either fell or it is also possible that prēnēs which was translated as ‘falling headlong’ was mistranslated because it now believed that translates as ‘swollen up.’ So instead of falling headlong after he hanged himself, Judas hang for so long that his organs burst.

Either way, there is no contradiction.

b) and c) I assume you are referring to Acts 1:18 and Matthew 27:6-7. When you look at the original Greek used Matthew uses the word ajgoravzw which means legal ownership, and ktaomai which means physical possession. Judas purchased the field in his name, he was the legal owner, but after he passed away, the Priests obtained that field but did not have the legal right to it. Judas purchased the field, the priests acquired the field. There is no contradiction.

d) Answered question in 4 and 5.
BTW, the papias fragment I referred to is this:
“Judas lived his career in this world as an enormous example of impiety. He was so swollen in the flesh that he could not pass where a wagon could easily pass. Having been crushed by a wagon, his entrails poured out.”
I do not think Papias’ accounts come from eyewitness testimony. He may have been elaborating because a horrible death was associated with offense against God or crime against God.
 
I certainly understand the difficulties and issues with translation from other languages. That is really the point of my post. People will get into debates based on a singulart word in the bible. Seems very silly and illogical to debate a particular word when we don’t know if the word has changed from one translation or copy made.
This is well said. In addition to all that, I have to ask why there is such contentious study of the Bible when there is very little study of the instrument, the mind, which is doing the contentious study? If one does not have a clue as to the shenanigans of the mind, both through critical thinking and deep self inquiry resulting in transcendence, what’s the point of arguing? Other than superficialities, there is, without those, very little or no expereintial referent in any of it for the words to apply to!
 
=gtrguy155;9172912]Hello everyone,
Im worried tonight.
The past months of bible studying has really made me question the bible a lot.
I have some concerns that I will list here. I hope we can have a good discussion on this post about any of these points.
Im worried that the bible might not be from God or has been changed from the original text… I’m also worried because we are supposed to follow traditions handed down in the church but I don’t feel I can trust much of anything that comes from the vatican.
Im sure there are good people there but also a lot of crooked people - also many crooked people in the church’s history as well so you can see why I have trouble trusting these people.
My beliefs at the moment: I believe there is a God, but maybe we’re being tested in some way. Maybe we’re really not supposed to know anything about him or our purpose in life. I’m not going to mass much anymore because of my mental health at the moment which isn’t too great but also my concerns about the church. It’s making it harder for me to want to have anything to do with mass.
But anyways here are my concerns list:
  • there are a lot of contradictions in the bible. Yes, some contradictions people list can be explained away, but A LOT can’t be explained away at all. There’s no way around many of them because they really are just straight contradictions.
  • also things like the “kill homosexuals” thing in the old testament confuses me. I thought God doesn’t want us to murder but in the old testament you’re supposed too? I’ve seen a verse that says God always stays and thinks the same.
Also verses where it says God sometimes decieves worries me.
  • Also anything anyone wants to say about why we should trust the vatican. The catholic church put the bible together - what if they changed, added, or deleted things in it to suit what they wanted the church to be?
I know that’s a lot. I know you may not want to respond to every single point I said, but even just one would be great.
Thank you in advance to anyone who responds.
My dear friend in Christ.

I offer you an explaination and a question.🙂

While there exist many tips on how to correctly understand the Bible; there is BIT ONE “Infallible Rule”

NEVER EVER CAN ONE PART OF THE BIBLE CONTRADICT ANOTHER PORTION. WERE THIS PERMITTED THE BIBLE WOULD BE USELESS AND WORTHLESS.👍 The Bible is true BUt not always factual.

If you’d care to share 1 or 2 examples we can discusss your understanding and see what it is that may not be clear to you.👍

If you’d like send me a Private message on this?

God Bless,
pat/PJM
 
  1. ‘He’ ‘the body’ - this is semantics.
No it is not mere semantics. In your interpretation of Acts, Judas has already been dead for days when his body bursts open, because he hanged himself several days prior. If this were the case we would expect language like in Matthew 28:51-52

“At that moment the curtain of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom. The earth shook, the rocks split and the tombs broke open. The bodies of many holy people who had died were raised to life.”

So Acts should read something like “Judas dead body fell headlong”, or “the body of Judas (who had died from hanging) fell headlong”. But of course, the author of Acts knows nothing about Matthews account of Judas death, and recounts another tradition.
  1. How is this in ‘contradiction’ with another verse?
Well, Judas couldn’t very well have bought the field with with the blood money, if he refused to accept it and threw it away!
4 and 5) Why can’t both be correct?
In order for both explanations to be correct, Judas would have had to hang himself in the field he bought " with payment he received for his wickedness" (Acts 1:18). The problem is that Judas in Matthew’s account DID NOT BUY ANYTHING WITH THE PAYMENT. He threw the money away, became suicidal and hanged himself. The pharisees later bought a field with the money Judas had thrown away, that is how it got its name. So you cannot have it both ways. Either Judas died in a field he bought for the blood money while alive, or he threw the money away and did not buy anything, but rather despaired and hanged himself. Furthermore, the idea that people independently came up with the same name for the field for wildly different reasons is unlikely in and of itself.
a) Matthew 27:3-8 tells us specifically how Judas died, by hanging.
Yes, and acts says he died by his guts bursting open. You want to make it as if Acts doesn’t mention Judas dying, only what happened to his corpse several days after he actually died, but you’d never come up with such a strained reading of the text if you didn’t try force it into not contradicting Matthew.
Roman practice in Judas’ lifetime was that it was common for condemned criminals to be left hanging hanging, as a warning to others.
Judas was not a condemned criminal… But presumably, nobody would have cut Judas down if he hanged himself in his own field. The problem, of course, is that Judas did not buy any field in Matthew’s account. Rather he threw the money away and hanged himself. The pharisees later bought the field.
His organs would of swelled and eventually his abdomen burst (Acts 1:18) and he either fell or it is also possible that prēnēs which was translated as ‘falling headlong’ was mistranslated because it now believed that translates as ‘swollen up.’ So instead of falling headlong after he hanged himself, Judas hang for so long that his organs burst.
This is wisful thinking.The greek here means “fell headlong”. It is his falling headlong that caused him to burst open. It is not a mistranslation. That is how it is universally translated in scores of different biblical translations. If you are going to claim that the vast majority of biblical translations in the world are wrong, you’ll need some very powerful evidence to demonstrate this… But I understand why it is problematic. There is no way his body fell headlong if the rope broke, and realizing this you desperately want the text to say something it does not say 🙂
b) and c) I assume you are referring to Acts 1:18 and Matthew 27:6-7. When you look at the original Greek used Matthew uses the word ajgoravzw which means legal ownership, and ktaomai which means physical possession. Judas purchased the field in his name, he was the legal owner, but after he passed away, the Priests obtained that field but did not have the legal right to it. Judas purchased the field, the priests acquired the field. There is no contradiction.
Please note that JUDAS THROWS THE MONEY AWAY IN MATTHEW’S ACCOUNT. Therefore HE COULD NOT HAVE BOUGHT IT WITH THAT MONEY LIKE ACTS SAYS HE DID (ACTS 1:18). So this nonsense of physical vs. legal ownership completely misses the point: Acts says Judas bought the field with the money that Matthew says he trew into the temple, and by which the pharisees subsequently bought the field. That is a contradiction, plain and simmple.

And what the heck is physical ownership of a field anyway, as opposed to legal ownership?Please provide me with examples from first century Israel by means of recognized scholarly sources.
I do not think Papias’ accounts come from eyewitness testimony. He may have been elaborating because a horrible death was associated with offense against God or crime against God.
None of the accounts are from eyewitness testimony. The point is that there were several traditions on how Judas died. They are contradictory. And two of them found their way into the bible.

BUT…

It doesn’t matter what I write. You will never admit a contradiction here. Your whole worldview rests on this idea of inspiration, and it will cause you immense doubt and pain if you realize that the bible is not inerrant. “If the New Testament is wrong here, what else is wrong?” So you cling to a false idea, so that you’ll continue to feel safe and secure. But it is all an illusion, and you are smart enough to see through it.

Thanks for the discussion.
 
There’s no contradiction. Either Judas tried to hang himself, but actually died of some kind of ironic fall or gut putrification; or Judas had a gut disease or tried to poison himself, and then ended up hanging himself to stop the pain.

If Judas was taking a leaf from the old West and trying to hang himself off a cart by making the donkey or horse start pulling while he sat on the back with a noose around his neck, a panicky horse or donkey could have made things very messy.

If Judas tried to hang himself by jumping off a tree or rocky area, and didn’t land how or where he expected (say, right on top or through something pointy), it’s quite possible for him to have ripped his gut open while trying to hang himself. Accidental impalement is pretty common as an accompaniment to planned suicide.

If he poisoned or toxic chemical’d himself, thought it wasn’t working and tried another method, and then the poison started starting while or after his hanging, that could also easily have happened.

Suicide attempts often get exactly this messy, if the person is very determined but a bad planner. Read forensics books and you’ll find out. Heck, there’s probably forensics articles on the very subject of how many different ways to die are consonant with the known accounts of Judas’ death.
 
No it is not mere semantics. In your interpretation of Acts, Judas has already been dead for days when his body bursts open, because he hanged himself several days prior. If this were the case we would expect language like in Matthew 28:51-52

“At that moment the curtain of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom. The earth shook, the rocks split and the tombs broke open. The bodies of many holy people who had died were raised to life.”

So Acts should read something like “Judas dead body fell headlong”, or “the body of Judas (who had died from hanging) fell headlong”. But of course, the author of Acts knows nothing about Matthews account of Judas death, and recounts another tradition.

Well, Judas couldn’t very well have bought the field with with the blood money, if he refused to accept it and threw it away!

In order for both explanations to be correct, Judas would have had to hang himself in the field he bought " with payment he received for his wickedness" (Acts 1:18). The problem is that Judas in Matthew’s account DID NOT BUY ANYTHING WITH THE PAYMENT. He threw the money away, became suicidal and hanged himself. The pharisees later bought a field with the money Judas had thrown away, that is how it got its name. So you cannot have it both ways. Either Judas died in a field he bought for the blood money while alive, or he threw the money away and did not buy anything, but rather despaired and hanged himself. Furthermore, the idea that people independently came up with the same name for the field for wildly different reasons is unlikely in and of itself.

Yes, and acts says he died by his guts bursting open. You want to make it as if Acts doesn’t mention Judas dying, only what happened to his corpse several days after he actually died, but you’d never come up with such a strained reading of the text if you didn’t try force it into not contradicting Matthew.

Judas was not a condemned criminal… But presumably, nobody would have cut Judas down if he hanged himself in his own field. The problem, of course, is that Judas did not buy any field in Matthew’s account. Rather he threw the money away and hanged himself. The pharisees later bought the field.

This is wisful thinking.The greek here means “fell headlong”. It is his falling headlong that caused him to burst open. It is not a mistranslation. That is how it is universally translated in scores of different biblical translations. If you are going to claim that the vast majority of biblical translations in the world are wrong, you’ll need some very powerful evidence to demonstrate this… But I understand why it is problematic. There is no way his body fell headlong if the rope broke, and realizing this you desperately want the text to say something it does not say 🙂

Please note that JUDAS THROWS THE MONEY AWAY IN MATTHEW’S ACCOUNT. Therefore HE COULD NOT HAVE BOUGHT IT WITH THAT MONEY LIKE ACTS SAYS HE DID (ACTS 1:18). So this nonsense of physical vs. legal ownership completely misses the point: Acts says Judas bought the field with the money that Matthew says he trew into the temple, and by which the pharisees subsequently bought the field. That is a contradiction, plain and simmple.

And what the heck is physical ownership of a field anyway, as opposed to legal ownership?Please provide me with examples from first century Israel by means of recognized scholarly sources.

None of the accounts are from eyewitness testimony. The point is that there were several traditions on how Judas died. They are contradictory. And two of them found their way into the bible.

BUT…

It doesn’t matter what I write. You will never admit a contradiction here. Your whole worldview rests on this idea of inspiration, and it will cause you immense doubt and pain if you realize that the bible is not inerrant. “If the New Testament is wrong here, what else is wrong?” So you cling to a false idea, so that you’ll continue to feel safe and secure. But it is all an illusion, and you are smart enough to see through it.

Thanks for the discussion.
Gotta go with Veeder on this one. Egoic investment in a work that is clearly contradictory on even when Jesus was born, something nearly impossible to not know by people who knew Him for even three years, how you count notwithstanding, is a dangerous business. Fortunately, many have lived through worse admissions.
 
The view of God in the Bible slowly develops from a tribal god among many gods in the pantheon of the ancient near east, to the monotheistic God almighty who rules over all nations and all of creation. According to John’s gospel, Jesus is the perfect revelation of who God is, and one of the purposes of the incarnation is to reveal God’s character to us. And then we need the guidance of the Holy Spirit in the life of the Church in order to understand what that revelation means.
So, when we look back at some of the ancient texts that are quite early in our tradition we find that some of them are quite immoral. Of course God would never command genocide! Of course God would never punish innocent babies and families in Egypt because of what a pharaoh did! But the reason we see this is because we are raised in a culture which has evolved out of the judeo-christian worldview. Many cultures (and quite a few Christians) are still blind to this even today.
The text of scripture ain’t the word of God in and of itself, but the message of scripture can be divine if we use the texts properly, in accordance with the living tradition of God’s people. The horrible texts of the old testament where God demands the wholesale slaughter of men, women, children and animals can serve as a warning to us of the dangers of religious fanaticism, and if God wants to give us any message by means of such texts, it is this.
If you listen carefully to the debate between Cardinal Pell and Richard Dawkins (it can be found on youtube), you’ll see that the cardinal says the same thing. This is in fact the view of the vast majority of the priests and bishops in the Church, and I dare say our pope himself.
The position that the Bible was originally free from error, but has been corrupted is found in the Bible.
““‘How can you say, “We are wise,
for we have the law of the LORD,”
when actually the lying pen of the scribes
has handled it falsely?” (Jeremiah 8:8)
This was how Jeremiah tried to explain away the horrors of the Old Testament.
Ezekiel had another explanation:
“because they had not obeyed my laws but had rejected my decrees and desecrated my Sabbaths, and their eyes lusted after their parents’ idols. So I gave them other statutes that were not good and laws through which they could not live; I defiled them through their gifts—the sacrifice of every firstborn—that I might fill them with horror so they would know that I am the LORD.’” (Ezekiel 20:24-26)
Ezekiel says that God gave them bad laws (sacrifice of firstborn children, see Exod 22:29) to punish them.
The last 100 years of biblical scholarship has reached another conclusion. The jewish view of God evolved over time. There are no ancient perfect texts. Neither the “lying scribes” or the vatican has falsified them. They are our past, and that should make us humble before we use religious texts to discriminate against people today.
This and the rest of the catholic posters who argue that the Bible is rubbish seems to be more logical than those trying to jump through hoops to solve all these contridictions.

I suppose there is no point in trying to retry being Catholic afterall, if we’re just interpreting moot laws like protestants than better to just remain agnostic and hopefully forget about God as life goes on.

Just another untrustworthy book to ignore…
 
No it is not mere semantics. In your interpretation of Acts, Judas has already been dead for days when his body bursts open, because he hanged himself several days prior. If this were the case we would expect language like in Matthew 28:51-52

“At that moment the curtain of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom. The earth shook, the rocks split and the tombs broke open. The bodies of many holy people who had died were raised to life.”

So Acts should read something like “Judas dead body fell headlong”, or “the body of Judas (who had died from hanging) fell headlong”. But of course, the author of Acts knows nothing about Matthews account of Judas death, and recounts another tradition.
But Matthew was not the only author commenting on Judas death, we have Luke writing in Acts who writes from another perspective so we have additional information.

The Gospels not lining up perfectly line up line is one of the reason historians consider the Gospels to be historically trustworthy. If the Gospels lined up perfectly collusion could be suggested.

The Gospels were written early. If they were factually inaccurate on Judas’ death people alive would of been around and able to refute them.
Well, Judas couldn’t very well have bought the field with with the blood money, if he refused to accept it and threw it away!
In order for both explanations to be correct, Judas would have had to hang himself in the field he bought " with payment he received for his wickedness" (Acts 1:18). The problem is that Judas in Matthew’s account DID NOT BUY ANYTHING WITH THE PAYMENT. He threw the money away, became suicidal and hanged himself. The pharisees later bought a field with the money Judas had thrown away, that is how it got its name. So you cannot have it both ways. Either Judas died in a field he bought for the blood money while alive, or he threw the money away and did not buy anything, but rather despaired and hanged himself. Furthermore, the idea that people independently came up with the same name for the field for wildly different reasons is unlikely in and of itself.
Matthew 27:7 and Acts 1:18:

Jews bought the field in Judas’ name. The money used was the money that was given to Judas for his betrayal of Jesus Christ and was the same money he threw back at them. Jews could not use this money because it was blood money so they bought the field.

It is like giving a friend money to buy something in a shop. You could say I bought that item but you could say my friend purchased or acquired the item.

John 19:1 says, ‘Then Pilate therefore took Jesus, and scourged Him.’ Pilate did not do the scourging, it was the Roman soldiers who carried out Pilate’s orders.

If you want to understand Biblical texts like about Judas, you have to stop trying to think of it in a 21st century modern mindset and think of how the Gospel authors would of written in their culture and time.
Yes, and acts says he died by his guts bursting open. You want to make it as if Acts doesn’t mention Judas dying, only what happened to his corpse several days after he actually died, but you’d never come up with such a strained reading of the text if you didn’t try force it into not contradicting Matthew.
Acts does not contradict Matthew. Acts follows Matthew. And it makes logical sense as I have already said, because in that time Judas would of been left and his organs would of eventually swelled up and burst. Acts following Matthew makes medical sense.
 
Judas was not a condemned criminal… But presumably, nobody would have cut Judas down if he hanged himself in his own field. The problem, of course, is that Judas did not buy any field in Matthew’s account. Rather he threw the money away and hanged himself. The pharisees later bought the field.
This is wisful thinking.The greek here means “fell headlong”. It is his falling headlong that caused him to burst open. It is not a mistranslation. That is how it is universally translated in scores of different biblical translations. If you are going to claim that the vast majority of biblical translations in the world are wrong, you’ll need some very powerful evidence to demonstrate this… But I understand why it is problematic. There is no way his body fell headlong if the rope broke, and realizing this you desperately want the text to say something it does not say 🙂
It is not wishful thinking. Why I would lie about the meaning of Greek which can be linguistically checked.
The Acts 1:18 account uses a peculiar Greek word found nowhere else in the entire New Testament. The word is prēnēs (πρηνής). In the Acts account, prēnēs is translated as falling “headlong”—as opposed to Matthew’s account of Judas hanging himself. However, prēnēs was used in a different context in this ancient papyrus, where, in Koine Greek, itactually had another meaning that had become common by the time of the reign of Alexander the Great. Prēnēs can also mean, “to swell up.”
tomorrowsworld.org/commentary/judas-death-and-biblical-inerrancy
Please note that JUDAS THROWS THE MONEY AWAY IN MATTHEW’S ACCOUNT. Therefore HE COULD NOT HAVE BOUGHT IT WITH THAT MONEY LIKE ACTS SAYS HE DID (ACTS 1:18). So this nonsense of physical vs. legal ownership completely misses the point: Acts says Judas bought the field with the money that Matthew says he trew into the temple, and by which the pharisees subsequently bought the field. That is a contradiction, plain and simmple.
And what the heck is physical ownership of a field anyway, as opposed to legal ownership?Please provide me with examples from first century Israel by means of recognized scholarly sources.
I do not have the time to go and check what happened in first century Israel with land ownership or posession. Why don’t you do it yourself. The Greek language differences (Matthew using ajgoravzw which means legal ownership, and ktaomai which means physical possession) are used for a reason.
None of the accounts are from eyewitness testimony. The point is that there were several traditions on how Judas died. They are contradictory. And two of them found their way into the bible.
It doesn’t matter what I write. You will never admit a contradiction here. Your whole worldview rests on this idea of inspiration, and it will cause you immense doubt and pain if you realize that the bible is not inerrant. “If the New Testament is wrong here, what else is wrong?” So you cling to a false idea, so that you’ll continue to feel safe and secure. But it is all an illusion, and you are smart enough to see through it.
Thanks for the discussion.
I do not know how to understand Papias’ statements because the statement on Judas could of been an elaboration to show Judas’ bad death as a punishment from God.

You are a skeptic and nothing will compel you to believe this is anything other than a contradiction even though this does not fit the definition of a contradiction.
 
It is not wishful thinking. Why I would lie about the meaning of Greek which can be linguistically checked. (…)
Then provide me with a biblical translation that translates it that way. Not som random guy who claims to know greek and wants to save the bible from contradicting itself.
I do not have the time to go and check what happened in first century Israel with land ownership or posession. Why don’t you do it yourself.
You made a positive claim and have the burden of proof. But as I pointed out, the claim meaningless. According to Matthew Judas did not accept the payment and threw it away. According to acts, he kept it and bought the field.
You are a skeptic and nothing will compel you to believe this is anything other than a contradiction even though this does not fit the definition of a contradiction.
It fits perfectly. You have switched between different contradictory explanations through your responses. First you said Judas indirectly bought the field by means of the pharisees. Then you changed the response to something silly about Judas buying it legally and the pharisees posessing it physically. Then you have changed your explanation back to Judas buying it by means of the pharisees as one could give money to a friend and have him/her buy something. The problem is, of course, that Judas did not give the money to the pharisees to buy something with. Rather he rejected the money because he felt remorse, according to Matthew. So Judas did not buy the field either directly or indirectly according to Matthew.

The contradictions stand:
  • What happened to the money? Judas kept or rejected? A contradiction
  • Who bought the field? Judas with the money he got for his betrayal, or the Pharisees with the same money after Judas refused to keep it? A contradiction.
  • Where did Judas die? In the field be bought? Or in some random place where he went after throwing away the money? A contradiction.
  • How did Judas die? By hanging or by falling headlong, bursting open and litterally spilling his guts? 🙂 A contradiction.
  • How did the field get its name? Because Judas died in a bloody manner in the field, or because the pharisees bought it with blood money after Judas had hung himself some other place.
I am not a “skeptic” btw. I am a practising Catholic. And my quite realistic view of the bible is the majority view among priests and bishops in the world, our pope included.
 
Gotta go with Veeder on this one. Egoic investment in a work that is clearly contradictory on even when Jesus was born, something nearly impossible to not know by people who knew Him for even three years, how you count notwithstanding, is a dangerous business. Fortunately, many have lived through worse admissions.
Yep, yours truly included 🙂
 
Then provide me with a biblical translation that translates it that way. Not som random guy who claims to know greek and wants to save the bible from contradicting itself.
Read ‘A Manual Greek Lexicon of the New Testament’ by G. Abbott-Smith. For many years prēnēs was thought to translate to ‘falling headlong,’ but investigations in the 20th century of papyri revealed that the word has another meaning, ‘swelling up.’
You made a positive claim and have the burden of proof. But as I pointed out, the claim meaningless. According to Matthew Judas did not accept the payment and threw it away. According to acts, he kept it and bought the field.
When Judas threw the money, the Priests could not accept the money because it was blood money so they used that money to buy potter’s field, but that money still belonged to Judas. The priests bought the field on Judas’ behalf. You could say Judas indirectly bought the field because it was his money being used, but the field also belonged to the priests because they had used that money to buy the field.

ESV Study Bible has this note about the Acts account of the purchase of Potter’s field:

That is, the field was acquired indirectly by Judas, through the agency of the chief priests. As Matt. 27:3–7 records, Judas brought the 30 pieces of silver back to the chief priests and elders. The chief priests then purchased the potter’s field with Judas’s money, with the same effect as if Judas had himself made the purchase.
It fits perfectly. You have switched between different contradictory explanations through your responses. First you said Judas indirectly bought the field by means of the pharisees. Then you changed the response to something silly about Judas buying it legally and the pharisees posessing it physically. Then you have changed your explanation back to Judas buying it by means of the pharisees as one could give money to a friend and have him/her buy something. The problem is, of course, that Judas did not give the money to the pharisees to buy something with. Rather he rejected the money because he felt remorse, according to Matthew. So Judas did not buy the field either directly or indirectly according to Matthew.
The contradictions stand:
  • What happened to the money? Judas kept or rejected? A contradiction
  • Who bought the field? Judas with the money he got for his betrayal, or the Pharisees with the same money after Judas refused to keep it? A contradiction.
  • Where did Judas die? In the field be bought? Or in some random place where he went after throwing away the money? A contradiction.
  • How did Judas die? By hanging or by falling headlong, bursting open and litterally spilling his guts? 🙂 A contradiction.
  • How did the field get its name? Because Judas died in a bloody manner in the field, or because the pharisees bought it with blood money after Judas had hung himself some other place.
I am not a “skeptic” btw. I am a practising Catholic. And my quite realistic view of the bible is the majority view among priests and bishops in the world, our pope included.
I have answered these questions already, you just do not seem to like or agree with the answers, but that does not make the answers untrue.

Thank you for the discussion.
 
=pghtocmh;9288681]The problem I see with contradictions in the Bible is that so many people, including Catholics base many of their beliefs on the words in the Bible to the point that they examine each word. How many debates and explanations have we seen on these boards explaining each word in a verse of the Bible. If there are contradictions especially in the gospels which are supposed to be inspired by the Holy Spirit how can we put so much emphasis on the words in the Bible?
And my friend have you ever asked JUST WHY we Catholics do that?

Because God has entrusted the Key’s to Heaven with His Catholic Church alone. ONE of those key’s is the EXCLUSIVE right and ablitity to Cottrctly and Fully understand Christ Teachings. Something which protestants seem to struggle with.😊 Why Else are their many thousands of “personal understanding and communions” in the protestant community.🙂

It is an effort on our part to actaully share “THEE Good news.” There can be only One truth per issue. Certainlly God did not wait for fifteenhundred years and Martin Luther to share it:shrug:

God Bless you,
pat/PJM
 
I have answered these questions already, you just do not seem to like or agree with the answers, but that does not make the answers untrue.

Thank you for the discussion.
I shal resist the promptings of my ego to continue discussing this contradiction further. I knew even before providing you with it, that you would in all likelyhood never accept it. And so I have wasted my time and yours. Mea culpa, mea culpa, mea maxima culpa.

Had I posted a contradiction in the Quran or in the mormon scriptures, you’d have no problem seeing it, and depending on your personality, you might even have laughed at those silly muslims and mormons who cannot see the obvious faults of their beliefs.

Evangelicals and catholics usually have no problem seeing Joseph Smith lied about his first vision.
  • In one account Smith says that he had his “first visitation of angels” when he was about 14 years old. No mention is made of God the father or Jesus.
  • In another account of the first vision, he is in his sixteenth year, feels burdened by his sins and goes into the forest to ask forgiveness. There Jesus appears to him and tells him that his sins are forgiven. No mention is made of angels, or of God the father.
  • In another account, Smith is 14 and confused. He doesn’t know which church to join. There is a huge revival in the area, and the churches are quarreling as to who is right. God and Jesus appears to Smith and they tell him that all the sects are false, and their creeds are an abomination in the sight of God.
  • In addition, there was no revival where Smith lived when he was 14. It took place several years later, and it was not of the kind Smith described. He also tries to join the methodists after God allegedly has told him that it is a false church and an abomination.
Did Smith forget that God and Jesus descended out of heaven to speak to him? If both the Father and the Son appeared, why did he not mention this in all accounts? Why did it take 20 years (and a change in Smith’s theology about God) before he “remembered” seeing both? Smith changes his motivation to pray, who spoke to him, and what the message was that they gave him in his accounts. There is also the matter of the revival…

James White’s book “Letters to a mormon elder” clearly presents the problems with the first vision accounts. Highly recommended reading if you are interested in mormonism. (But don’t expect mormons to listen.)

HOWEVER,

The very same people who will agree that Joseph Smith surely would have remembered that God the Father and Jesus came down from heaven to speak to him, and laugh at the silly mormons who argue that such a momentous event might be foggy to Smith, will turn right around and argue the same thing when it is relevant to their own faith.

In Acts 10, Peter receives a vision from God that convinces him that

*“God does not show favoritism but accepts from every nation the one who fears him and does what is right”. *

Then

"While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit came on all who heard the message. The circumcised believers who had come with Peter were astonished that the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out even on Gentiles (…) Surely no one can stand in the way of their being baptized with water. They have received the Holy Spirit just as we have.” So he ordered that they be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ."(Acts 10:34-35; 44-45,47-48).

Peter brings the good news to the apostles, and they object to the gentiles becoming christians, but:

"When they heard this, they had no further objections and praised God, saying, “So then, even to Gentiles God has granted repentance that leads to life.”" (Acts 11:18)

And then the question arises as to whether or not these gentile converts need to convert to judaism as well. The result is the Jerusalem council in Acts 15.

The million dollar question is, of course:

Why doesn’t Peter and the other apostles remember THE GREAT COMMISION where Jesus tells the apostles to baptize all nations?

Why is it such a shock to Peter and the apostles that gentiles can be baptized? And is it a coincidence that Peter (and everyone else in Acts) baptizes in the name of Jesus, and no mention is made of the trinitarian formula, also part of the great commision?

The number one response I receive is. “They forgot”. “Their memory was foggy”. Etc… So when it comes to their own beliefs, they are just as bad as the mormons.
 
One example: Matthew 27 and Acts 1. The death of Judas.

According to Matthew:
  1. Judas felt remorse
  2. He threw the pieces of silver into the temple
  3. he hanged himself
  4. The pharisees took the blood money and bought a field.
  5. “That is why it has been called the Field of Blood to this day.”
According to Acts,
  1. Judas kept his money (implied)
  2. He bought a field for the blood money.
  3. Judas fell headlong, his body burst open and all his intestines spilled out.
  4. “Everyone in Jerusalem heard about this, so they called that field in their language Akeldama, that is, Field of Blood”
(There is another version of Judas death in a Papias fragment, where Judas is swollen and is run over by a wagon and his intestines spill out).

Perhaps you want to play a game of mental gymnastics and “reconcile” the two accounts by creating a “gospel according to Abyssinia” where Judas first hangs himself, the rope breaks, wind turns him upside down so he falls headlong, Judas buying the field really means the pharisees did it on his behalf with his money (even though he first threw it away) etc… If so, you have made a new version of the story, without a shred of evidence, unheard of by matthew, luke or the early church, to convince yourself that the two accounts are not contradictory.

I submit that to any rational individual without a pre-commitment to a very narrow idea of inspiration, it is obvious that these are two different traditions of the death of Judas, that they are contradictory in a number of ways, and that we simply do not know what happened to him. Both accounts contain some information about a field of blood, and Judas dying an unnatural death, so perhaps they get this information from an older source, closer to the event.
[bibledrb]Matthew 27:1-10 [/bibledrb]
and
[bibledrb]Acts of the Apostles 1:15-20[/bibledrb]
I do not see the contradiction that you write of here. :confused:
 
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