T
TimothyH
Guest
Good southern names, like Randy Carson!:yup: :clapping:
We need to have a meetup with pianistclare.
-Tim-
Good southern names, like Randy Carson!:yup: :clapping:
First, Iâm not sure where you are getting six âI AMâ statements; most things I have read identify seven or more, and this author (with a PhD) identified 45 eimi statements in Johnâs gospel alone: âI AMâ Sayings in the Fourth Gospel"Also, upon studying the Greek, which the NT was written in, the concept of the Eucharist as the âactualâ body of Christ isnât supported by it. Otherwise, ANYONE who didnât physically âeatâ it couldnât have âeternal lifeâ (John Ch.6). The key to understanding John Ch.6 is John 6:35, as well as the fact that Jesus saying âI AM the Bread of Lifeâ is 1 out of 6 âI AMâ statements that Jesus uses to describe Himself âfigurativelyâ in the Gospel of John alone.
First, since the original poster stated that Scripture isnât the primary source of truth & doctrine, then since HE is the one making that assertion, the burden of proof is on HIM, not me. I donât have to prove a negative.WellâŚfirst, before you ask this questionâŚyou should first show proof where the Bible says, chapter and verseâŚwhere it is the source of sole truthâŚand it contains everything there is to knowâŚabout faith and morals.
Second, from the very beginning of the Bible, starting with the Torah all the way to the last page of the Bible, God states over and over and over in His Word, âdo not add nor take awayâ from what He has revealed to us in His written word:And secondlyâŚfirst, you should provide proof first about the doctrine of Sola ScriptureâŚwhich you are alluding toâŚwhere is this in the Bible?
Yet, you believe Jesus is literally the bread at communion. Could you explain this inconsistency in your theology?First, Iâm not sure where you are getting six âI AMâ statements; most things I have read identify seven or more, and this author (with a PhD) identified 45 eimi statements in Johnâs gospel alone: âI AMâ Sayings in the Fourth Gospel"
Now, letâs take a look at a few of these, shall we?
âI AM the light of the worldâ (John 8:12)
âI AM the Door of the sheepâ (John 10:7,9)
âI AM the Good Shepherdâ (John 10:11,14)
âI AM the Resurrection & the the Lifeâ (John 11:25)
âI AM the the true vineâ (John 15:1,5)
Is Jesus literally the light of the world? Is He really a plant with leaves? :nope:
Yeah, I read it, but it still doesnât address my question why you suddenly change your theology that Jesus is speaking âfigurativelyâ & âliterallyâ when He compares Himself to literal things when He says âI AM the vine,â yet not when He says âI AM the bread of life.â And the reason many of His disciples walked away was because after hearing ALL of His speech, which included Him saying âI AM the bread of lifeâ & âunless you eat the flesh and drink the blood of the Son of Man you have no life in you,â They (mis)understood Jesus âthinkingâ that Jesus was speaking literally, which is âwhyâ they said âhow He give us His flesh to eat?â Those who walked away didnât realize that when Jesus said âI AM the bread of lifeâ that He was speaking figuratively & spiritually, not literally. They walked away, because of their misunderstanding, because they thought (incorrectly) that Jesus was asking them to break Levitical Law that prohibited eating the blood of any flesh (Leviticus 17:10-14). But Jesus wasnât speaking literally when He said âI AM the bread of life,â anymore than He was when He made those other âI AMâ statements in the Gospel of John. And thereâs no indication that when He made these other âI AMâ statements that âeverybodyâ understood what He meant because not âeverybodyâ followed Him when He said them, anymore than âeverybodyâ continued to follow Him when He said âI AM the bread of life.â Those who didnât follow Him (mis)understood Him to be speaking literally, rather than figuratively & spiritually. And âthatâ is âwhyâ they âno longer walked with Him.âNone of these metaphors created any problems for His hearers because they knew that these are metaphors, and there was no confusion about them. For example, do we read in scripture of an argument breaking out, âHow can this man be a gate for the sheep? Why, he doesnât even have any hinges!â No. There is nothing like this when Jesus makes these âI AMâ statements. However, in John 6, His audience has a very different reaction, so thatâs where we should pick up the trail, and by the way, I personally wrote the following, so stick with me to the end, okay?
Even Luther, the first Protestant, believed in the real presence of Jesus in the Eucharist to some extent.Yet, you believe Jesus is literally the bread at communion. Could you explain this inconsistency in your theology?
Yeah, I read it, but it still doesnât address my question why you suddenly change your theology that Jesus is speaking âfigurativelyâ & âliterallyâ when He compares Himself to literal things when He says âI AM the vine,â yet not when He says âI AM the bread of life.â And the reason many of His disciples walked away was because after hearing ALL of His speech, which included Him saying âI AM the bread of lifeâ & âunless you eat the flesh and drink the blood of the Son of Man you have no life in you,â They (mis)understood Jesus âthinkingâ that Jesus was speaking literally, which is âwhyâ they said âhow He give us His flesh to eat?â Those who walked away didnât realize that when Jesus said âI AM the bread of lifeâ that He was speaking figuratively & spiritually, not literally. They walked away, because of their misunderstanding, because they thought (incorrectly) that Jesus was asking them to break Levitical Law that prohibited eating the blood of any flesh (Leviticus 17:10-14). But Jesus wasnât speaking literally when He said âI AM the bread of life,â anymore than He was when He made those other âI AMâ statements in the Gospel of John. And thereâs no indication that when He made these other âI AMâ statements that âeverybodyâ understood what He meant because not âeverybodyâ followed Him when He said them, anymore than âeverybodyâ continued to follow Him when He said âI AM the bread of life.â Those who didnât follow Him (mis)understood Him to be speaking literally, rather than figuratively & spiritually. And âthatâ is âwhyâ they âno longer walked with Him.â
And if you read that article, it even states that when Jesus says âI AM the bread of lifeâ in John Ch.6, Jesus is speaking metaphoricallly, not literally.First, Iâm not sure where you are getting six âI AMâ statements; most things I have read identify seven or more, and this author (with a PhD) identified 45 eimi statements in Johnâs gospel alone: âI AMâ Sayings in the Fourth Gospel"
That only further proves that the disciples who walked away (mis)understood that Jesus was speaking literally, rather than figuratively & spiritually. âThatâ is âwhyâ they walked away. Plus, if you read the article that the other Catholic poster provided it even states that when Jesus said âI AM the bread of lifeâ that the tense is metaphorical, not literal:âMoreover, when we consider the language used by John, a literal interpretationâhowever disturbingâbecomes even more obvious. In John 6:50-53 we encounter various forms of the Greek verb phago, âeating.â However, after the Jews begin to express incredulity at the idea of eating Christâs flesh, the language begins to intensify. In verse 54, John begins to use trogo instead of phago. Trogo is a decidedly more graphic term, meaning âto chew onâ or to âgnaw onââas when an animal is ripping apart its prey.â
From the link in the previous post
Why would Jesus use more graphic language after the people were misunderstanding what he was saying? He lost a lot of followers for this, wouldnât he have cleared what he meant if he was speaking metaphorically?That only further proves that the disciples who walked away (mis)understood that Jesus was speaking literally, rather than figuratively & spiritually. âThatâ is âwhyâ they walked away. Plus, if you read the article that the other Catholic poster provided it even states that Jesus said âI AM the bread of lifeâ that the tense is metaphorical, not literal.
Iâm not Lutheran. So whatâs your point? Just because Luther was the âfather of the Reformation,â that doesnât mean ALL Protestants base their theology on Luther. They base it on SCRIPTURE, not Luther. Technically, Luther was a Catholic, before he was excommunicated, so why arenât you sola scriptura? See, that strawman works both ways.Even Luther, the first Protestant, believed in the real presence of Jesus in the Eucharist to some extent.
Why didnât he stop them to correct them?
catholic.com/magazine/articles/what-catholics-believe-about-john-6
Luther was the first Protestant. Protestantism started with him. It was later denominations that stopped believing in the real prescence.Iâm not Lutheran. So whatâs your point? Just because Luther was the âfather of the Reformation,â that doesnât mean ALL Protestants base their theology on Luther. They base it on SCRIPTURE, not Luther. Technically, Luther was a Catholic, before he was excommunicated, so why arenât you sola scriptura? See, that strawman works both ways.
Jesus had been speaking metaphorically prior to this, & he continued to with other âI AMâ statements afterwards. Jesus even told His disciples that he spoke in parables because not everyone has âears to hear,â & that He only revealed what He was actually saying to those who were actually âHis.â Those who walked away who misunderstood Him to be speaking literally, Jesus knew their hearts. Thatâs why He didnât clarify, anymore than He didnât clarify with His other âI AMâ statements later.Why would Jesus use more graphic language after the people were misunderstanding what he was saying? He lost a lot of followers for this, wouldnât he have cleared what he meant if he was speaking metaphorically?
Thatâs still irrelevant to what you said & what I asked. Luther took out those books, because he found errors & contradictions in them - both historical & theological - which Protestants today also recognize that conflicts with previous & later Scripture. Plus, they werenât included in the âGreat Synagogueâ headed by the Ezra from the OT, who collected the Hebrew/Aramaic Scriptures & considered the OT closed, which is why those 7 books werenât later included in the Targums - the Aramaic translation of the OT.Luther was the first Protestant. Protestantism started with him. It was later denominations that stopped believing in the real prescence.
Luther took out seven books he wasnât even sola scriptura. He was also excommunicated for being a heretic.
"âFor I received from the Lord what I also delivered to you, that the Lord Jesus on the night when he was betrayed took bread, and when he had given thanks, he broke it, and said, âThis is my body which is for you. Do this in remembrance of me.â In the same way also the cup, after supper, saying, âThis cup is the new covenant in my blood. Do this, as often as you drink it, in remembrance of me.â For as often as you eat this bread and drink the cup, you proclaim the Lordâs death until he comes. Whoever, therefore, eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner will be guilty of profaning the body and blood of the Lord.â
-1 Cor. 11:23-27"
therealpresence.org/eucharst/father/a5.html#didache
Why did you put why in quotations marks?Jesus had been speaking metaphorically prior to this, & he continued to with other âI AMâ statements afterwards. Jesus even told His disciples that he spoke in parables because not everyone has âears to hear,â & that He only revealed what He was actually saying to those who were actually âHis.â Those who walked away who misunderstood Him to be speaking literally, Jesus knew their hearts. Thatâs why He didnât clarify, anymore than He didnât clarify with His other âI AMâ statements later.
So, âwhyâ do you believe that Jesus speaks figuratively & spiritually in those other âI AMâ statement, but suddenly change your theology that Jesus is now speaking literally when He says âI AM the bread of life,â even though that Catholic source posted by that other Catholic states that âI AM the bread of lifeâ is metaphorical? Please explain your disagreement with this Catholic source?
Because understanding it literally would violate Levitical Law which came from & was prohibited from God (Leviticus 17:10-14). Saying âI am the gateâ doesnât. Saying âbefore Abraham was, I AMâ certainly does, which is why they tried to stone Him, because He was declaring Himself to be God.Why did you put why in quotations marks?
Why did the people not say âhow can this man be a sheep gateâ at the metaphor of the sheep gate or any other metaphor but suddenly they take this one literally?
Again, Jesus explained parables to His followers who He knew who âhearâ Him, not just âThe 12.â Those who walked away in John Ch.6 who (mis)understood Him to be speaking literally, likewise Jesus knew their hearts. And âthatâ is why they walked away.Didnât he explain the parable of the seeds to other disciples that werenât apostles? I donât remember who it was I just remember they were disciples. There was a parable that they didnât get and they asked for the meaning and he just told them. Why would he not clarify he was speaking in a metaphors?
And how do you know of it conflicted with scripture? Different Protestant groups have different interpretations of the bible. How can you know for certain which interpretation is right?Thatâs still irrelevant to what you said & what I asked. Luther took out those books, because he found errors & contradictions in them - both historical & theological - which Protestants today also recognize that conflicts with previous & later Scripture. Plus, they werenât included in the âGreat Synagogueâ headed by the Ezra from the OT, who collected the Hebrew/Aramaic Scriptures & considered the OT closed, which is why those 7 books werenât later included in the Targums - the Aramaic translation of the OT.
Also, Paulâs quote of Jesus about the communion bread & wine doesnât mean âeatâ is meant literally. You have to go back to John 6:35 to find out Jesus is speaking metaphorically, not literally, just like that Catholic source STATES that itâs metaphorical.
Plus, Luther being excommunicated as a heretic by the group who he was challenging doesnât automatically make him a heretic. Youâre just using circular reasoning. Heâd be a heretic if what he taught conflicted with Scripture.
But if it was only a metaphor it wouldnât violate Levitical law right? To violate Levitical law you have to do it literally. Why would they think it literal?Because understanding it literally would violate Levitical Law which came from & was prohibited from God (Leviticus 17:10-14). Saying âI am the gateâ doesnât. Saying âbefore Abraham was, I AMâ certainly does, which is why they tried to stone Him, because He was declaring Himself to be God.
Again, Jesus explained parables to His followers who He knew who âhearâ Him, not just âThe 12.â Those who walked away in John Ch.6 who (mis)understood Him to be speaking literally, likewise Jesus knew their hearts. And âthatâ is why they walked away.
Why do you insist that Jesus could ONLY be speaking Metaphorically OR Literally BUT NOT both?Jesus had been speaking metaphorically prior to this, & he continued to with other âI AMâ statements afterwards. Jesus even told His disciples that he spoke in parables because not everyone has âears to hear,â & that He only revealed what He was actually saying to those who were actually âHis.â Those who walked away who misunderstood Him to be speaking literally, Jesus knew their hearts. Thatâs why He didnât clarify, anymore than He didnât clarify with His other âI AMâ statements later.
So, âwhyâ do you believe that Jesus speaks figuratively & spiritually in those other âI AMâ statements, but suddenly change your theology that Jesus is now speaking literally when He says âI AM the bread of life,â even though that Catholic source posted by that other Catholic states that âI AM the bread of lifeâ is metaphorical? Please explain your disagreement with this Catholic source?