Ambrose may have had a few details wrong, but the pattern is the same. You never heard the Gospel until you left the Catholic Church.
That probably says more about you than it does about the Church.
My best friend (and best man at my wedding) was a cradle Catholic who left the Church for many years. When he finally started attending mass again (initially only because he agreed to take his elderly parents to mass), he thought, “Wow. When did priests start preaching the Gospel?”
Well, the point, of course, is that the priests of the Catholic Church were preaching the Gospel all along; he just didn’t have “ears to hear”.
I’m happy that you are hearing the hearing the Gospel at your current church, and I invite you to go deeper with the one, true Church when you are ready.
I was hardly a “Cradle Catholic.” I attended Catholic parochial elementary & high school, and later attended a Catholic college. I was also a devout altar boy, & got “A’s” in all my religion classes. I hardly ever missed Mass & clung to ever word my pastor said. So, I didn’t "miss’ anything. The “gospel” I heard was that a person got saved at the moment of baptism when the Holy Spirit “came into” a person, based on their interpretation of John 3:5 to refer to water baptism & other NT passages, as well as “maintaining” one’s salvation throughout one’s life by consuming the Eucharist at Mass based on John 6:53. This always confused me, because it John 3:5 & John 6:53 appear to teach two salvation plans that “unless” a person participates in them, they “cannot enter the kingdom of God” & “have no life in yourselves”:
“
Unless one is born of water & the Spirit he
cannot enter the kingdom of God” (John 3:5)
“So Jesus said to them, ‘Truly, truly, I say to you,
unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink His blood, you
have no life in yourselves.’” (John 6:53)
When I began studying the Bible & attending a Protestant church, I was taught - from Scripture - that the “water” in John 3:5 refers back to the OT where when “water & Spirit” were used together figuratively, it referred to the “pouring out” of the Holy Spirit (Isaiah 44:3-5), which the apostle Paul echoes in Titus 3:5-7, not water baptism. Likewise, I was taught that the key to understanding Jesus being & saying “I AM the Bread of life” & the “eating” of His “body” & “drinking” of His “blood” in John 6:53, likewise refers back to Jesus figuratively speaking in John 6:35 that “coming” & “believing in” Jesus being the “Bread of life”:
“
I AM the bread of life; he who comes to Me will
not hunger, and he who believes in Me will
never thirst.”
Again, I was taught that Jesus is not speaking about literal “hunger” & literal “thirst” in John 6:35, anymore than than He’s talking about the bread at communion being His literal “body” not the wine being His literal “blood.” This is evident by the use of Jesus saying “
I AM the Bread of life” in John 6:35,41,48,51, just as Jesus “
figuratively” uses other “
I AM” statements to describe Himself not literally, but “figuratively & spiritually” - all in the Gospel of John, too:
“
I AM the light of the world” (John 8:12)
“
I AM the Door of the sheep” (John 10:7,9)
“
I AM the Good Shepherd” (John 10:11,14)
“
I AM the Resurrection & the the Life” (John 11:25)
“
I AM the the true vine” (John 15:1,5)
So, unless Jesus is speaking in literal, physical terms in the above verses, rather than figuratively & spiritually, like I was taught, why would Jesus suddenly change His figurative & spiritual analogies to a literal & physical one in John 6:53 when He states “
I AM the Bread of life”?
So, the actual Gospel of salvation I was taught in my Protestant church was that a person is “justified” (made acceptable) by faith & have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ (Romans 5:1), & that we are “saved by grace through faith, and not of works, nor of yourselves” because it’s a “gift” from God (Ephesians 2:8-9) - not salvation through water baptism, & “maintained” by eating the Eucharist at communion.