Sola Scriptura and why do Protestants like it?

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Hi, Kepha1,

Excellent! šŸ‘

God bless
Then there must be an unchanging infallible human language in order for a book to be infallible by itself, and as a result everyone who reads it should come to the same conclusions.
The bible is written in limited human language. Yes, it is inspired, but the claim that Scripture is infallible on its own means it needs no outside authority. This is not in Scripture. In fact, the idea is refuted in Scripture. 2 Peter 1:20, 2 Peter 3:16, Acts 8:30-31; Heb. 5:12.

1 Tim 3:15 (KJV) But if I tarry long, that thou mayest know how thou oughtest to behave thyself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth.

You are saying, ā€œwhich is the Scriptures of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth.ā€ Your premise, obviously, is unscriptural.
2 Timothy 3
[14] But continue thou in those things which thou hast learned, (TRADITION)and which have been committed to thee: knowing of whom thou hast learned them; (MAGISTERIUM)
[15] And because from thy infancy thou hast known the holy scriptures, (SCRIPTURE) which can instruct thee to salvation, by the faith which is in Christ Jesus.
[16] All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice,
[17] That the man of God may be perfect, furnished to every good work.

What’s listed first? Does verse 16 say, ā€œOnly scriptureā€¦ā€? Who is the ā€œman of Godā€? Do a search ā€œman of Godā€ in any Bible search engine. It’s a person called directly by God or a person who is ordained by a bishop. Not individual believers.
It says ā€œrecall these thingsā€, it does not say READ these things.
ā€œNo prophecy of scripture is made by private interpretationā€ā€¦ This shows plainly that the scriptures are not to be expounded by any one’s private judgment or private spirit, because every part of the holy scriptures were written by men inspired by the Holy Ghost, and declared as such by the Church; therefore they are not to be interpreted but by the Spirit of God, which he hath left, and promised to remain with his Church to guide her in all truth to the end of the world. Some may tell us, that many of our divines interpret the scriptures: they may do so, but they do it always with a submission to the judgment of the Church, and not otherwise.
 
Hi, Alix 1912,
The Lutheran Church MS does have a hierarchy and we have established interpretations of the Bible from our own councils. Our pastors have teaching authority.
This is an interesting concept Alix 1912 and maybe it can be used to throw some additional light on SS.
The Lutheran Church MS does have a hierarchy and we have established interpretations of the Bible from our own councils. Our pastors have teaching authority.
Where does this teaching authority for your pastor come from? Seriously. In my view, the authority to teach God’s Word must come from God - or else, how would you know that the Word is being taught correctly. Here are two examples and each with a question.

In the late 19th Century a Methodist dentist became so conviced about the evils of alcohol that he conviced his local church to adopt un-fermented wine (grape juice). Eventually, he convinced others and some other churches adopted this novel idea as part of the Prohibition Movement. Welch’s Grape Juice Company stands as a modern day marker of his accomplishment en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thomas_Bramwell_Welch in industry and in changing church teaching. Passover was and is celebrated with actual wine. And, while this is can be seen as a Methodist innovation, if a Lutheran pastor had such an idea - what would happen?

From the earliest Biblical records, homosexual acts have been condemned. Today we find several denominations advancing the homosexual agenda to establish ā€˜same sex marriage’ as just one more expression of a diverse population. Many religions claiming to be Christian have endorsed this practice and there have been many documented ā€˜weddings’ performed by pastors. If a Lutheran pastor wanted to perform such a ā€˜ceremony’ - what would happen?

Ultimately, SS has some very serious limitations - in fact St. John tells that Scripture does not contain everything. Claiming it is the ā€˜highest reference’ still puts one in the position of reading difficult material that does not self-explain … and that means there needs to be an interpreter - or Magisterium, if you will. Since there are different Lutheran groups - and no one head - there will be different interpretations of what was said. While only natural given the differences in the way all of us think - the challenge comes when groups divide over differing interpretations, if ONLY Scripture is the authority. Of course, books can not have ā€˜authority’ - only people can. So, with SS as the guide - how is this resolved?

I am looking forward to your responses. šŸ™‚

God bless
 
Wow,

You ask why a particular concept has an appeal to protestants. Then you all speculate on it and make fun of it and those who believe it. You post snarky oneliners like ā€œI spell Tradition with a Capital Tā€ Really, do you think we are all so stupid we cannot tell the difference between lower and upper case letters and what that means. Then when you actually get a response you make fun of it, and the people who post it, and you wonder why there are so many protestants who are Anti Catholic.

My husband’s priest gets so frustrated by this. He has often lamented that Catholics attitudes are often what drives protestants away from the Catholic Church way more than actual doctrinal differences. I have to agree with him, I find the general ā€œWe are always right and you stupid ignorant protestants are so silly and misguided attitudeā€ more repulsive than any doctrinal differences between my church and the Catholic Church. It’s particularly annoying when those leveling that attitude are often (not always) poorly taught in their own faith let alone others.

I have always been a staunch defender of the Catholic Church when someone spouts off things about Catholics that aren’t true, but the more I read threads like this I find myself not caring as much, since many Catholics don’t seem to care if the questions they ask protestants or the statements they make about them are patronizing, rude or downright wrong. Luckily I have an awesome husband who tries to model what being a true Christian and Catholic is like, and he has a great priest who can seem to both hold to the tenants of the Catholic Church without being a jerk about it, and be kind towards protestants that he encounters. It reminds me that there are rude people in every faith and to not judge it by a few.

However if this thread was my only exposure to the Catholic Faith as a protestant, I would not want to learn about it any further, or give it any more respect than shown towards protestants here.

Alright I’m getting my soap box now.
Now that you are off your soapbox, could you respond to the contradictions of Protestantism that I outlined for you?
 
But doesn’t help you make your point because you have just shut out 99% of your audience. You’re forcing people onto your playing field with your rules and expecting them to play your game, but good luck finding anyone willing to do that.

Good point but perhaps lost in harshness.

That’s a very big question and one I’m sure there is an answer to in her heart. Don’t you think?

She never said they didn’t.

Friend - it’s between all of US. Not them.

Friend - the *authority *has been, is, and always will be Jesus Christ.
Well then, I’ll try and soften it up a bit so it will be a bit more digestible for all concerned.

It is an interesting phenomenon of religious history that the heresy of Luther, taking its rise in a proud rebellion against the teaching AUTHORITY of the Catholic Church, issued in a pessimistic theology which, exaggerating the effects of original sin, presented human nature as intrinsically corrupt and that the human will, bereft of freedom, was radically incapable of pursuing the good and that human reason was powerless to know truth. As man’s broken will must submit passively to the grace of God, so must his mind now, darkened by sin, allow itself to be led by an occult and irresistible force, a blind and unreasoning faith.

From all such attempts to disparage the powers of the human reason the Catholic Church has remained ever aloof. On the ā€œplayfieldā€ of searching for the Truth is it any wonder that when confronted with their own inherent contradictions all that many non-Catholic Christians can reply with are ā€œsoapboxā€ tirades?

Kumbaya!
 
Hi, Alix1912,

Let’s take a moment and look at just one item…
I have always been a staunch defender of the Catholic Church when someone spouts off things about Catholics that aren’t true, but the more I read threads like this I find myself not caring as much, since many Catholics don’t seem to care if the questions they ask protestants or the statements they make about them are patronizing, rude or downright wrong. Luckily I have an awesome husband who tries to model what being a true Christian and Catholic is like, and he has a great priest who can seem to both hold to the tenants of the Catholic Church without being a jerk about it, and be kind towards protestants that he encounters. It reminds me that there are rude people in every faith and to not judge it by a few.
Your decision to combat error where you find it is commendable - and a reflection of a strong moral direction. But, in reading threads such as this - where people, however they may phrase the material, are expressing their view of the Truth, has you discouraged - then maybe it is time to step back and look at just what is going on.

Ultimately, error is the enemy of all Truth - and we really have an obligation to promote, encouage and spread the Truth to the best of our ability - and, that means both in and out of season, to paraphrase St. Paul.

Christ was quite clear about false teachers luring away - even those who it would appear have a solid footing in the Faith. False teaching is not only ā€˜out there’ but, it can be in our hearts, too. if we allow false teaching or error to spread because we do not like the way someone who is correct is presenting their ideas - then we are no friend of Truth! :eek: None of us opperate in a vacuum - we are constatntly influcing others … for good or evil! People thinking they understand your position will be scandalized to think you would not defend Truth - no matter who is personally trying to make their truthful but not politically correct point.

Yes, I know … we should all honor the question of Rodney ā€œWhy can’t we all get along?ā€ King. Well, Truth and error can not occupy the same space at the same time. Either you believe certain things or you don’t. It really is truly amazing just how few yes or no - with NO MAYBES - responses there really are. Well, let’s see -how about the Nicea Creed (325AD)? Read it and there are some items that are not in Scripture!

The following is a literal translation of the Greek text of the Constantinopolitan form, the brackets indicating the words altered or added in the Western liturgical form in present use:

We believe (I believe) in one God, the Father Almighty, maker of heaven and earth, and of all things visible and invisible. And in one Lord Jesus Christ, the only begotten Son of God, and born of the Father before all ages. (God of God) light of light, true God of true God. Begotten not made, consubstantial to the Father, by whom all things were made. Who for us men and for our salvation came down from heaven. And was incarnate of the Holy Ghost and of the Virgin Mary and was made man; was crucified also for us under Pontius Pilate, suffered and was buried; and the third day rose again according to the Scriptures. And ascended into heaven, sits at the right hand of the Father, and shall come again with glory to judge the living and the dead, of whose Kingdom there shall be no end. And (I believe) in the Holy Ghost, the Lord and Giver of life, who proceeds from the Father (and the Son), who together with the Father and the Son is to be adored and glorified, who spoke by the Prophets. And one holy, catholic, and apostolic Church. We confess (I confess) one baptism for the remission of sins. And we look for (I look for) the resurrection of the dead and the life of the world to come. Amen." newadvent.org/cathen/11049a.htm

If you waiver on the Truth because of your apparent over-riding sense of political correctness, then you fold Please notice that John the Bapitist and Christ were not politically in their recorded interactions with the Pharisees. Peter attempted to be politcally correct when he rebuked Christ for talking about His upcoming Passion and Death (Matt 16). Either you move with Christ through the Church He founded or you will move with someone else in the church that they founded. All the evidence is there and right now we have the time to look and learn - even from the harshest teachers.

Don’t lose heart.

God bless
 
TimothyH
An individual priest will first and foremost, be governed by twenty centuries of Sacred Tradtion.
If the priest starts teaching something which contradicts two thousand years of belief and practice, he is almost guaranteed to be called on it.
You are so right on this statement and not only a priest. Case in point. In today’s newspaper was this article —
POPE OUSTS BISHOP OVER ORDINATION VIEW - AP.
VATICAN CITY - Pope Benedict XVI has fired an outspoken Australian bishop who had called on the church to consider ordaining women and married men.
The Vatican said in a statement Monday that the pope has ā€œremoved from pastoral careā€ Bishop William Morris of the Toowoomba diocese, west of Brisbane.
That move was strong by the standards of the Vatican, which usually stops short of saying outright that it has ousted a church leader.

There was a bit more but this tells it like it is.
 
That’s a bit like asking where in the bible it says that Jesus never went to France. You can’t really prove a negative.
Yes, but the word ā€œtraditionā€ appears several times in the NT and the faithful are told to ā€œhold fast to itā€. Nowhere do we find the ideas regarding tradition that you promote and so we wonder where a sola scriptura adherent gets their notions regarding tradition if it is not from Scripture.
What we can see is that only form that has the Holy Spirit’s stamp of infallibility on it is the writings of those who saw Christ’s glory. There is no guarantee in Scripture for either Tradition or Magisterium.
Three things:
  1. there is no ā€œHoly Spirit’s stamp of infallibilityā€, and the Scriptures that you have given the stamp of approval to were not ā€œstampedā€ except by the Tradition of the Magisterium of the Catholic Church in declaring them Scripture…and you reject that.
  2. there is no ā€œguaranteeā€ of any of the books in the NT and, in fact, there is no Scriptural basis for including any of the texts we have in the NT.
  3. Not all of the books we have in the NT are from ā€œthose who saw Christ’s gloryā€. Luke is one example, and he authored a gospel account and Acts. In addition, the authors of many NT books are anonymous.
In fact, if you read 2 Peter 1, you find that Peter is worried about false teachers and false teaching, and specifically states that he is writing so that the readers will hold on to the truth, and the only thing he offers is that which was written by those who beheld Christ’s glory:
I find neither conclusion in the verses you provide. That is because it simply isn’t there.
An EXCELLENT place for Peter to identify any possible sources of infallible truth to protect the Church…
How about something simple like Peter saying: Hey, beloved, you know how as Jews we followed the sacred Scriptures? Well I, Paul, John, Luke etc etc am going to write some new Scriptures that will stand alone as the source of truth for the Christian faith.
Not a single author in the NT ever claims to be doing what you claim they did, so where did you get the idea? I submit you get it from Tradition because it is not contained in Scripture.
But notice that Peter makes a SERIES of exclusive claims for those who saw Christ’s glory. These would exclude even their disciples, much less anyone else in the Church.
Since Scripture is not limited to those who saw Christ’s glory (it is not all apostolic) your point has already been refuted.
And that’s it. Only prophecy of Scripture. No magesterium. No tradition… err Tradition.
And Peter goes on to tell his readers that false teachers are coming.
Yes - and Sola Scriptura is one of them!
So, I think what Peter says, knowing that he is about to die, is very revealing regarding what he (and presumably the other apostles) thought regarding Scripture and tradition.
I don’t see what you see at all. I see a huge silence in Scripture and a huge silence in history regarding what should be a very fundamental, very transparent, very obvious doctrine of the Church. Many well - intentioned Christians simply ignore- or are ignorant of - the fact that it took decades for our current Scriptures to be penned and CENTURIES to finally arrive at a canon of Scripture as distinct from the hundreds of documents claiming inspiration. When is it ever declared that the ā€œcanon of Scripture is closedā€ and we are now shifting to ā€œsola scriptura modeā€? The answer, from Scripture and from history - is never, and the reason is simple: it never happened!

Blessings!
 
Hi, Philthy,

Great post! šŸ‘

God bless
Yes, but the word ā€œtraditionā€ appears several times in the NT and the faithful are told to ā€œhold fast to itā€. Nowhere do we find the ideas regarding tradition that you promote and so we wonder where a sola scriptura adherent gets their notions regarding tradition if it is not from Scripture.

Three things:
  1. there is no ā€œHoly Spirit’s stamp of infallibilityā€, and the Scriptures that you have given the stamp of approval to were not ā€œstampedā€ except by the Tradition of the Magisterium of the Catholic Church in declaring them Scripture…and you reject that.
  2. there is no ā€œguaranteeā€ of any of the books in the NT and, in fact, there is no Scriptural basis for including any of the texts we have in the NT.
  3. Not all of the books we have in the NT are from ā€œthose who saw Christ’s gloryā€. Luke is one example, and he authored a gospel account and Acts. In addition, the authors of many NT books are anonymous.
I find neither conclusion in the verses you provide. That is because it simply isn’t there.

How about something simple like Peter saying: Hey, beloved, you know how as Jews we followed the sacred Scriptures? Well I, Paul, John, Luke etc etc am going to write some new Scriptures that will stand alone as the source of truth for the Christian faith.
Not a single author in the NT ever claims to be doing what you claim they did, so where did you get the idea? I submit you get it from Tradition because it is not contained in Scripture.

Since Scripture is not limited to those who saw Christ’s glory (it is not all apostolic) your point has already been refuted.

Yes - and Sola Scriptura is one of them!

I don’t see what you see at all. I see a huge silence in Scripture and a huge silence in history regarding what should be a very fundamental, very transparent, very obvious doctrine of the Church. Many well - intentioned Christians simply ignore- or are ignorant of - the fact that it took decades for our current Scriptures to be penned and CENTURIES to finally arrive at a canon of Scripture as distinct from the hundreds of documents claiming inspiration. When is it ever declared that the ā€œcanon of Scripture is closedā€ and we are now shifting to ā€œsola scriptura modeā€? The answer, from Scripture and from history - is never, and the reason is simple: it never happened!

Blessings!
 
Muze,

I ā€œdebatedā€ a hardcore Calvinist on another thread (I am not suggesting you are a Calvinist - I mention it only so that you can see where I am coming from with my position) regarding the Bible itself.

As an adherent to ā€œsola scripturaā€, the vast majority of protestants will always ā€œelevateā€ scripture to a level above all else. But in doing so (and I assume you do as well), would you please answer the following questions (and I ask them sincerely and without intending any offense):

I start with the premise that you accept the KJV of the bible as sacred scripture - no more, no less. If my premise is correct, then please answer the following:

P.S. Catholics all agree that God, through the Holy Spirit, inspired all sacred scripture. So for the sake of the questions below, you may accept as a ā€œgivenā€ that God is the originator of all that is holy in the bible. When I ask questions such as ā€œwhoā€, I am talking about human beings.

Questions about the Bible itself
  1. Who determined the books that should be part of the OT canon?
  2. When was the OT canon closed?
  3. By what authority did the person or persons you named in response to No. 1 above, act in recognizing the books that you consider to be the OT canon? When I say ā€œby what authorityā€, I am, quite frankly, asking: ā€œwho put him or them in charge?ā€
  4. Who determined the books that should be part of the NT canon?
  5. When was the NT canon closed?
  6. By what authority (same caveats as in No. 3 above) did the person or persons you named in response to No. 4 above, act in recognizing the books that you consider to be the NT canon?
  7. Other than Revelation, no other book in the entire bible has the author stating that he was inspired by God or the Holy Spirit while authoring a particular book. How do you know that a particular book in your bible is the inspired word of God?
  8. Being familiar with the protestant argument that the bible is ā€œself authenticatingā€ based on a certain formula that every reader should ask when trying to determine if a particular book is inspired or not, please tell me what about the book of Philemon stands out that suggests it is inspired?
Now, when I ask this - I am NOT questioning Philemon’s inspiration. I have no doubt that it should be considered part of the canon of the bible. I simply want you to tell me what ā€œjumps out at youā€ when you read Philemon, so that as you read it, you ā€œautomaticallyā€ conclude, ā€œWell, it is certainly obvious that this book was inspired/authored by Godā€.

With no disrespect intended, I find Philemon to be one of the ā€œdriestā€ and ā€œleast inspiringā€ books in the entire bible. But as I look to the Catholic Church for the determining authority on the canon, I do not have to worry about reading Philemon and wondering if it is or is not inspired. I want you to explain your ā€œprocessā€ to me in determining inspiration, and then apply it specifically to Philemon.

Authority Exercised on behalf of God on Earth

Muze, as a protestant, you obviously deny the authority of the Catholic Church to teach authoritatively about all-things religious. If Christ did not install Peter as the first head of a visible Church on earth that was to continue after Christ’s death and even after Peter’s death, I again ask you to please answer the following:

A. Doesn’t it seem odd to you that Christ would begin a visible church on earth as a means of spreading his word to all peoples, and yet fail to ā€œinstallā€ someone as head of that church?

B. Without a ā€œchurch headā€ or ā€œleaderā€, how is God’s word supposed to be taught to people around the world, in a uniform manner so that different doctrines/teachings do not arise during the church’s evangelization of people?

C. If you acknowledge that Christ DID establish a visible church on earth, do you also acknowledge that it made perfect sense to ensure that the leader(s) of that church would be ā€œprotectedā€ from teaching false doctrine to people of the world while it evangelized God’s word? Catholics call that protection ā€œinfallibilityā€. I am simply curious as to how you view the matter.

D. How do you explain the existence of tens of thousands of different protestant denominations in the US alone, all of which arose because of disagreements - some minor, some major - about interpretation of certain parts of the bible?

E. Don’t you think it odd that God would allow so many different erroneous teachings of his doctrines to exist, and yet not also provide for a ā€œbaseā€ to which everyone could turn if they wanted to learn the truth about his teachings?

F. Prior to the Protestant Revolt in the Middle Ages (and a short time before that), how was man supposed to learn about God’s word and how was man supposed to be sure that what he was hearing, was, in fact, the correct teaching of that word?

If you respond, I sincerely appreciate you taking the time to do so.
 
Hi, Salvatore123,

This is a truly remarkable post. I am really interested in seeing the response you get from Muze. You know, he specializes in one-liner responses… 😃

God bless
Muze,

I ā€œdebatedā€ a hardcore Calvinist on another thread (I am not suggesting you are a Calvinist - I mention it only so that you can see where I am coming from with my position) regarding the Bible itself.

As an adherent to ā€œsola scripturaā€, the vast majority of protestants will always ā€œelevateā€ scripture to a level above all else. But in doing so (and I assume you do as well), would you please answer the following questions (and I ask them sincerely and without intending any offense):

I start with the premise that you accept the KJV of the bible as sacred scripture - no more, no less. If my premise is correct, then please answer the following:

P.S. Catholics all agree that God, through the Holy Spirit, inspired all sacred scripture. So for the sake of the questions below, you may accept as a ā€œgivenā€ that God is the originator of all that is holy in the bible. When I ask questions such as ā€œwhoā€, I am talking about human beings.

Questions about the Bible itself
  1. Who determined the books that should be part of the OT canon?
  2. When was the OT canon closed?
  3. By what authority did the person or persons you named in response to No. 1 above, act in recognizing the books that you consider to be the OT canon? When I say ā€œby what authorityā€, I am, quite frankly, asking: ā€œwho put him or them in charge?ā€
  4. Who determined the books that should be part of the NT canon?
  5. When was the NT canon closed?
  6. By what authority (same caveats as in No. 3 above) did the person or persons you named in response to No. 4 above, act in recognizing the books that you consider to be the NT canon?
  7. Other than Revelation, no other book in the entire bible has the author stating that he was inspired by God or the Holy Spirit while authoring a particular book. How do you know that a particular book in your bible is the inspired word of God?
  8. Being familiar with the protestant argument that the bible is ā€œself authenticatingā€ based on a certain formula that every reader should ask when trying to determine if a particular book is inspired or not, please tell me what about the book of Philemon stands out that suggests it is inspired?
Now, when I ask this - I am NOT questioning Philemon’s inspiration. I have no doubt that it should be considered part of the canon of the bible. I simply want you to tell me what ā€œjumps out at youā€ when you read Philemon, so that as you read it, you ā€œautomaticallyā€ conclude, ā€œWell, it is certainly obvious that this book was inspired/authored by Godā€.

With no disrespect intended, I find Philemon to be one of the ā€œdriestā€ and ā€œleast inspiringā€ books in the entire bible. But as I look to the Catholic Church for the determining authority on the canon, I do not have to worry about reading Philemon and wondering if it is or is not inspired. I want you to explain your ā€œprocessā€ to me in determining inspiration, and then apply it specifically to Philemon.

Authority Exercised on behalf of God on Earth

Muze, as a protestant, you obviously deny the authority of the Catholic Church to teach authoritatively about all-things religious. If Christ did not install Peter as the first head of a visible Church on earth that was to continue after Christ’s death and even after Peter’s death, I again ask you to please answer the following:

A. Doesn’t it seem odd to you that Christ would begin a visible church on earth as a means of spreading his word to all peoples, and yet fail to ā€œinstallā€ someone as head of that church?

B. Without a ā€œchurch headā€ or ā€œleaderā€, how is God’s word supposed to be taught to people around the world, in a uniform manner so that different doctrines/teachings do not arise during the church’s evangelization of people?

C. If you acknowledge that Christ DID establish a visible church on earth, do you also acknowledge that it made perfect sense to ensure that the leader(s) of that church would be ā€œprotectedā€ from teaching false doctrine to people of the world while it evangelized God’s word? Catholics call that protection ā€œinfallibilityā€. I am simply curious as to how you view the matter.

D. How do you explain the existence of tens of thousands of different protestant denominations in the US alone, all of which arose because of disagreements - some minor, some major - about interpretation of certain parts of the bible?

E. Don’t you think it odd that God would allow so many different erroneous teachings of his doctrines to exist, and yet not also provide for a ā€œbaseā€ to which everyone could turn if they wanted to learn the truth about his teachings?

F. Prior to the Protestant Revolt in the Middle Ages (and a short time before that), how was man supposed to learn about God’s word and how was man supposed to be sure that what he was hearing, was, in fact, the correct teaching of that word?

If you respond, I sincerely appreciate you taking the time to do so.
 
Hello Alix 1912 (and anyone else interested),

I suggested earlier in the thread that you consider some Kimberly Hahn audios.
I would suggest listening to audios from Kimberly Hahn as a good place to begin (this one and this one are very good).
I couldn’t believe it! I just checked St. Joseph Communications Podcasts and they are giving a FREE download of Kimberly Hahn’s at saintjoepodcast.com/! (I have no affiliation with SJC or this download being available with this timing.) God bless St. Joseph Communications.

It will only be available for several days so I’d consider downloading and listening to it NOW.

I’m going to download and listen to it as well. Kimberly Hahn will almost certainly touch upon some of the sola Scriptura issues we’ve been discussing here (but I’ll know for sure upon listening to it) in this thread.

God bless.
 
Muze,

I ā€œdebatedā€ a hardcore Calvinist on another thread (I am not suggesting you are a Calvinist - I mention it only so that you can see where I am coming from with my position) regarding the Bible itself.

As an adherent to ā€œsola scripturaā€, the vast majority of protestants will always ā€œelevateā€ scripture to a level above all else. But in doing so (and I assume you do as well), would you please answer the following questions (and I ask them sincerely and without intending any offense):

I start with the premise that you accept the KJV of the bible as sacred scripture - no more, no less. If my premise is correct, then please answer the following:

P.S. Catholics all agree that God, through the Holy Spirit, inspired all sacred scripture. So for the sake of the questions below, you may accept as a ā€œgivenā€ that God is the originator of all that is holy in the bible. When I ask questions such as ā€œwhoā€, I am talking about human beings.

Questions about the Bible itself
  1. Who determined the books that should be part of the OT canon?
  2. When was the OT canon closed?
  3. By what authority did the person or persons you named in response to No. 1 above, act in recognizing the books that you consider to be the OT canon? When I say ā€œby what authorityā€, I am, quite frankly, asking: ā€œwho put him or them in charge?ā€
  4. Who determined the books that should be part of the NT canon?
  5. When was the NT canon closed?
  6. By what authority (same caveats as in No. 3 above) did the person or persons you named in response to No. 4 above, act in recognizing the books that you consider to be the NT canon?
  7. Other than Revelation, no other book in the entire bible has the author stating that he was inspired by God or the Holy Spirit while authoring a particular book. How do you know that a particular book in your bible is the inspired word of God?
  8. Being familiar with the protestant argument that the bible is ā€œself authenticatingā€ based on a certain formula that every reader should ask when trying to determine if a particular book is inspired or not, please tell me what about the book of Philemon stands out that suggests it is inspired?
Now, when I ask this - I am NOT questioning Philemon’s inspiration. I have no doubt that it should be considered part of the canon of the bible. I simply want you to tell me what ā€œjumps out at youā€ when you read Philemon, so that as you read it, you ā€œautomaticallyā€ conclude, ā€œWell, it is certainly obvious that this book was inspired/authored by Godā€.

With no disrespect intended, I find Philemon to be one of the ā€œdriestā€ and ā€œleast inspiringā€ books in the entire bible. But as I look to the Catholic Church for the determining authority on the canon, I do not have to worry about reading Philemon and wondering if it is or is not inspired. I want you to explain your ā€œprocessā€ to me in determining inspiration, and then apply it specifically to Philemon.

Authority Exercised on behalf of God on Earth

Muze, as a protestant, you obviously deny the authority of the Catholic Church to teach authoritatively about all-things religious. If Christ did not install Peter as the first head of a visible Church on earth that was to continue after Christ’s death and even after Peter’s death, I again ask you to please answer the following:

A. Doesn’t it seem odd to you that Christ would begin a visible church on earth as a means of spreading his word to all peoples, and yet fail to ā€œinstallā€ someone as head of that church?

B. Without a ā€œchurch headā€ or ā€œleaderā€, how is God’s word supposed to be taught to people around the world, in a uniform manner so that different doctrines/teachings do not arise during the church’s evangelization of people?

C. If you acknowledge that Christ DID establish a visible church on earth, do you also acknowledge that it made perfect sense to ensure that the leader(s) of that church would be ā€œprotectedā€ from teaching false doctrine to people of the world while it evangelized God’s word? Catholics call that protection ā€œinfallibilityā€. I am simply curious as to how you view the matter.

D. How do you explain the existence of tens of thousands of different protestant denominations in the US alone, all of which arose because of disagreements - some minor, some major - about interpretation of certain parts of the bible?

E. Don’t you think it odd that God would allow so many different erroneous teachings of his doctrines to exist, and yet not also provide for a ā€œbaseā€ to which everyone could turn if they wanted to learn the truth about his teachings?

F. Prior to the Protestant Revolt in the Middle Ages (and a short time before that), how was man supposed to learn about God’s word and how was man supposed to be sure that what he was hearing, was, in fact, the correct teaching of that word?

If you respond, I sincerely appreciate you taking the time to do so.
*I appreciate your post very much. It is simple and clear. I have often asked the question why would Jesus found a Church without ensuring that it did not teach error. It is so clear that he would.

Also do Protestants not ask themselves where is the authority that allows men to ā€œplantā€ new churches?

God bless all
Cinette:)*
 
Hi, Cinette,

I am probably not the one to answer this question … but, from the various responses I recall from Protestants, it would seem that their view would be private interpretation of Scripture is the root cause.

The spirit has guided them to separate from a particular group or to join a particular group and that is what they do. A lot may have to do with most Protestant ministers are really part time employees - during the week they work to make a living and Sunday is the day they take care of their congregation.

God bless
*I appreciate your post very much. It is simple and clear. I have often asked the question why would Jesus found a Church without ensuring that it did not teach error. It is so clear that he would.

Also do Protestants not ask themselves where is the authority that allows men to ā€œplantā€ new churches?

God bless all
Cinette:)*
 
Because men are fallible, and the only guarantee of infallibility in the bible is for the bible itself. Like it or not, tradition and magisterium are man made, and do not carry any promise of infallibility.
Umm Like it or not translations and copies of scripture do not carry any promise of infallibility and are man made.

Can you refute that argument?
 
Hi, Jphilapy,

Great insight! šŸ‘

Let me encourage you in your learning activities about the Catholic Faith … šŸ™‚

Ah, but when it comes to getting a response … I am afraid you will have to just take a number! He has not yet responded to Post #49 yet! Chances are there is some intense research being done involving one-liner responses … 😃

God bless
Umm Like it or not translations and copies of scripture do not carry any promise of infallibility and are man made.

Can you refute that argument?
 
jphilapy,

Actually, the ā€œLatin Vulgateā€ DID carry such a promise.

You said: ā€œUmm Like it or not translations and copies of scripture do not carry any promise of infallibility and are man made. Can you refute that argument?ā€

First, ALL translations we have in existence today are copies of the original manuscripts of the books of the bible - unless someone is sitting on the greatest archaeological find of all time and has the original manuscripts of the books of the bible.

Second, at the Council of Trent, after naming every book that should be considered part of the OT and NT canons, the Council proclaimed:

"But if any one receive not, as sacred and canonical, the said books entire with all their parts, as they have been used to be read in the Catholic Church, and as they are contained in the old Latin vulgate edition; and knowingly and deliberately condemn the traditions aforesaid; let him be anathema. Let all, therefore, understand, in what order, and in what manner, the said Synod, after having laid the foundation of the Confession of faith, will proceed, and what testimonies and authorities it will mainly use in confirming dogmas, and in restoring morals in the Church.

ā€œMoreover, the same sacred and holy Synod,—considering that no small utility may accrue to the Church of God, if it be made known which out of all the Latin editions, now in circulation, of the sacred books, is to be held as authentic,—ordains and declares, that the said old and vulgate edition, which, by the lengthened usage of so many ages, has been approved of in the Church, be, in public lectures, disputations, sermons and expositions, held as authentic; and that no one is to dare, or presume to reject it under any pretext whatever.ā€

Caveats:
  1. The above is as close as the Church has ever come to proclaiming a particular version/translation as infallible (that is, without error).
  2. Even though Trent issued such a proclaimation, I don’t know if a Council or Pope sitting ex cathedra can proclaim a bible translation to be infallible. Pope St. Pius V issued a similar declaration in his encyclical Quo Primum, trying to bind all future popes and bishops by stating that only the Mass of Pius V could be used in the future. Of course, Pius overstepped his bounds in doing so, as no pope or council can bind a future pope or council on matters of discipline - and the manner of saying Mass is a discipline. If Pius V’s encyclical was binding on all future popes and councils, then the current crop of sedevacantists would be correct in their argument that St. Peter’s chair has been vacant since Pius XII (most sedevacantists claim that all popes since and including John XXIII were not valid).
  3. The primary reason why I question the authority of Trent to state that the ā€œold Latin Vulgate editionā€ is without error is simple: the Latin Vulgate published by St. Jerome, by the time of Trent, had long since been lost through errors of translation by monks. Remember that before the printing press, all bibles were produced by monk scribes hand-writing every verse of every book of every bible. The very nature of such a undertaking necessarily allows for innocent ā€œerror creepā€, especially when conducted over 1000 years. Thus, this is, to me, a huge stumbling block for Trent to have declared as ā€œerror freeā€ a bible (St. Jerome’s Latin Vulgate) that was no longer in existence. 🤷 Father Martin, et al. did not translate Jerome’s Latin Vulgate into english when he published the Douay Rheims - he published an english translation of the latin bibles in existence at the time he undertook his translation at Douay and Rheims.
  4. As St. Jerome’s Latin Vulgate was no longer in existence at the time of Trent, and Popes Sixtus and Clement knew this, Sixtus commissioned a new Latin translation of the bible, and after he died, Clement saw the project through to the end. The result was known as the Clementine Vulgata, and served as the ā€œofficial bibleā€ of the Catholic Church until its replacement by the *Nova Vulgata *in 1979 with a revision in 1986, both under JPII.
  5. Finally (and a shame, quite frankly), no one has produced an approved english translation of the Nova Vulgata since its original publication 32 years ago. Although the Navarre Bible prints the Nova Vulgata on the same page as its english part of its bible/commentary, the english is a translation of the RSV - NOT the Nova Vulgata.
P.S. Probably 99% of the Douay Rheims bibles that people read today are NOT the ones that were published by Father Martin in the late 1500’s/early 1600’s. One can obtain a facsimile of the original DR. But it is VERY difficult to read, because of the manner in which english was spoken and written in the Middle Ages.

Bishop Challoner sought to revise the DR to rid it of the old, archaic english spellings and grammar that made it so difficult to understand to readers and writers of modern english (unlike Latin, english continues to change each year because it is used every day of every year). But Challoner made so many changes that his revision turned out to be a new translation. Thus, the overwhelming majority of DR bibles people buy today are properly called the ā€œDouay Rheims - Challoner Revisionā€.
 
Hi Tom,
Hope you are well. If I may, just some comments.
=tqualey;7829070]
There have been a lot of things that the founders of the Protestant Revolt believed that are no longer believed by their followers today. For example, Luther, Calvin and Zwingli all believed in the Perpetual Virginity of Mary. Today, this is generally not the case.
While making no comments about those who come from Calvin or Zwingli roots (they can speak for themselves), you make a good point about Lutherans, as our confessions quite appropriately support sempre virgo, and properly so from a Christ-centered POV.
The definition of SS you have provided is really unique from my understanding of how it is used today.
Actually, from a Lutheran view, its not. The Formula of Concord makes clear the importance of creeds and councils, though in a way secondary to scripture as the final norm for all teachers and teachings.
To that end, the very first section of the Book of Concord is, in fact, the three ancient creeds. Lutherans accept the first 6 councils, and essentally the 7th, as rigth reflections of scripture.
Basically, my understanding of SS is that, ā€œIf it is not in Scripture it simply does not exist as for matters of faith.ā€ Of course, even if something does exist in Scripture (e.g., Sinlessness of Mary, Peter being chosen to lead the Apostles,Christ is the Second Person of the Blessed Trinity, Christ commanding us to eat His Flesh and drink His Blood, Christ delegating to men the Power of God to forgive sin, etc.) it is subject to individual interpretation which for Protestants negates the Word of Scripture
For a Lutheran, none of these, except the part about perpetual sinlessness of the Blessed Virgin which is adiaphora, all of the others we do accept. These things - historic doctrines of the Church, and not subject to individual interpretation. Individual interpretation is, in fact, discouraged by Lutheran reformers as Martin Chemnitz states,
*ā€œThis is also certain, that no one should rely on his own wisdom in the interpretation of the Scripture, not even in the clear passages… We also gratefully and reverently use the labors of the fathers who by their commentaries have profitably clarified many passages of the Scripture. And we confess that we are greatly confirmed by the testimonies of the ancient church in the true and sound understanding of the Scripture. Nor do we approve of it if someone invents for himself a meaning which conflicts with all antiquity, and for which there are clearly no testimonies of the church.ā€ *

None of these are later changes in Lutheran teaching, but all have their source from the reformers.
Pray tell, how is this distinction made between various ā€˜traditions’? Then, who actually makes such a distinction? It really sounds like there are an abundance of ā€˜popes’. One of the obvious problems with the fluidity of all Protestant groups is that there is a loss of collective history - every day really is a new day for the ship without a rudder. Look how these many Protestant groups have embraced the homosexual agenda item of same sex marriage when there is clear condemnation in Scripture
Not if they are true to the Lutheran Confessions.
I just do not think it is possible to have any kind of discussion concerning 30,000+ groups treating each as an individual. We are usually quite willing to talk about ā€˜Americans’ - but, we not only mean North Americans (excluding Central and South Americans) but also excluding the Canadians. That probably is ā€˜elitist’ but it makes for a manageable discussion - once you kow who you are talking about. The key is to look for a common denominator - the thread that unites the groups for comparrison purposes. Here the common thread is splintering from the Catholic Church - and the divergence these Protestant groups on every article of Faith held by the Catholic Church.
Then you must, by your own statement, exclude Lutherans, as we have not, not even close, diverged from ā€œevery article of faith held by the Catholic Churchā€.

Jon
 
Muze,

I was hoping you would have responded by now to the questions I posed in Post No. 49.

I still would to hear your response to them, but I wanted to also address two other points you stated:

I. You said: ā€œThe Church was Arian from 351 to 381.ā€

Not true.

To deal with the heresy propogated by Arius, the Catholic Church called two councils: First Council of Nicea in 325 (from which we have the Nicene Creed) and the First Council of Constantinople in 381. Although the Arian heresy was widespread, this heresy was a testament to the infallibility Christ promised to St. Peter and his successors. If not for that promise, Arianism might have triumphed. But thanks to that promise, only three bishops out of approximately 300 who attended the First Nicean Council did not sign the Nicean Creed. I consider that pretty strong evidence of just how ā€œbindingā€ the Catholic Church had become, especially considering that council ruled contrary to initial beliefs of the Emperors Constantius II and Valens.

It seems to me that one opposing the Catholic Church would never cite Arianism in favor of their opposition, as the Catholic Church - through two of its councils - did what was expected of it: it stamped out heresy (and a very serious one). The Catholic Church was never in better form than at these two Councils regarding this heresy.

And these are not just ā€œCatholic claimsā€. Catholic and non-Catholic historians accept what I just stated above. So this is not just some Catholic ā€œbabbleā€.

II. You said regarding the Catholic Church’s dogma that God gave the Church the charism of infallibility on matters of faith and morals: ā€œUnfortunately, I have no basis to believe this. It’s just a claim the RCC makes.ā€

You say you have no basis to believe the protection of infallibility, but how can you explain the Holy Scriptures themselves, when Christ told St. Peter in Matt. 16:19: ā€œAnd I will give to thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven. And whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth, it shall be bound also in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven.ā€

You must certainly acknowledge that God is an omnipotent being, and as such, cannot commit or subscribe to error of any kind.

With that acknowledgment, logic (as well as common sense) dictates that God would never permit himself to be ā€œbound and loosedā€ by someone on earth (St. Peter) unless God ensured that whatever St. Peter bound and loosed on earth COULD be sustainable as ā€œerror freeā€ by God in heaven - in other words, infallibility.

The following logical construct explains infallibility perfectly:

A. Christ gives St. Peter the authority/power to bind and loose on earth.

B. Christ tells St. Peter that when St. Peter exercises his power to bind and loose in earth, that which St. Peter binds and looses on earth will be considered bound and loosed in heaven.

C. God, as an omnipotent being, could never err or subscribe to error.

As: (A) St. Peter was given the power to bind and loose on earth, (B) whatever St. Peter binds and looses on earth is considered bound and loosed in heaven, (C) God cannot be held to a binding and loosening that was performed on earth by St. Peter in error, then:

(D) God must prevent St. Peter from erroneously binding and loosening.

Thus, the charism of infallibility on matters of faith and morals.
 
Hi, JonNC,

Nice to hear from you… šŸ™‚ And, I certinly hope that you are well.

I only want to address two of your comments.
Then you must, by your own statement, exclude Lutherans, as we have not, not even close, diverged from ā€œevery article of faith held by the Catholic Churchā€.

The Formula of Concord makes clear the importance of creeds and councils, though in a way secondary to scripture as the final norm for all teachers and teachings.
To that end, the very first section of the Book of Concord is, in fact, the three ancient creeds. Lutherans accept the first 6 councils, and essentally the 7th, as rigth reflections of scripture.

Jon
Besides the obvious non-recognition as the Pope being the Vicar of Christ on earth - and that the Pope is the head of the Church founded by Christ on Peter, as identified in Matt 16:18, tell me how Father Luther went from believing what the Catholic Church teaches that there are Seven Sacraments to only two.

Concerning Scripture, after reading your response, it would appear that creeds and councils are a distant second - nice but non-essential when confronted with Scripture which would ā€˜carry the argument’ by itself. Maybe I have over-stated what you intended but nothing appears to be equal to Scripture.

The problem, as I appreciate the matter, is that any variation of SS still relies on someone doing the work of determining the meaning of what was written. We know that private interpretation of Scripture is not approved (2Pet 1:20) so there is issue when it comes to how a passage is to be understood. As you know, the Apostles, the First Bishops of the Catholic Church were told that Holy Spirit would guide them to all truth (John 16:13) and that error can not be taught in pronouncing matters of Faith and Morals.

None of those who lead the Protestant Revolt took the Holy Spirit away from the role identified by Christ. Simply stated, interpreting Scripture away from what the Pope and Magisterium have identified leads to error. The proof of that statement is that ther are 30,000
  • groups all claiming SS and this is how they interpret the Bible. While they may disagree on everything else - they are unified in their belief that the Catholic Church is wrong.
I realize that there is a serious movement for a reunification between Lutherans and the Catholic Church. I also confess that I have lost track of its progress (actually, I have not heard anything about it in over a year). The Anglicans have made a lot of progress in this area of reunification. Can you bring me up to date on this.

God bless
 
Hi, Salvatore123,

It is good to see logic used so well! šŸ‘

God bless
Muze,

I was hoping you would have responded by now to the questions I posed in Post No. 49.

I still would to hear your response to them, but I wanted to also address two other points you stated:

I. You said: ā€œThe Church was Arian from 351 to 381.ā€

Not true.

To deal with the heresy propogated by Arius, the Catholic Church called two councils: First Council of Nicea in 325 (from which we have the Nicene Creed) and the First Council of Constantinople in 381. Although the Arian heresy was widespread, this heresy was a testament to the infallibility Christ promised to St. Peter and his successors. If not for that promise, Arianism might have triumphed. But thanks to that promise, only three bishops out of approximately 300 who attended the First Nicean Council did not sign the Nicean Creed. I consider that pretty strong evidence of just how ā€œbindingā€ the Catholic Church had become, especially considering that council ruled contrary to initial beliefs of the Emperors Constantius II and Valens.

It seems to me that one opposing the Catholic Church would never cite Arianism in favor of their opposition, as the Catholic Church - through two of its councils - did what was expected of it: it stamped out heresy (and a very serious one). The Catholic Church was never in better form than at these two Councils regarding this heresy.

And these are not just ā€œCatholic claimsā€. Catholic and non-Catholic historians accept what I just stated above. So this is not just some Catholic ā€œbabbleā€.

II. You said regarding the Catholic Church’s dogma that God gave the Church the charism of infallibility on matters of faith and morals: ā€œUnfortunately, I have no basis to believe this. It’s just a claim the RCC makes.ā€

You say you have no basis to believe the protection of infallibility, but how can you explain the Holy Scriptures themselves, when Christ told St. Peter in Matt. 16:19: ā€œAnd I will give to thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven. And whatsoever thou shalt bind upon earth, it shall be bound also in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth, it shall be loosed also in heaven.ā€

You must certainly acknowledge that God is an omnipotent being, and as such, cannot commit or subscribe to error of any kind.

With that acknowledgment, logic (as well as common sense) dictates that God would never permit himself to be ā€œbound and loosedā€ by someone on earth (St. Peter) unless God ensured that whatever St. Peter bound and loosed on earth COULD be sustainable as ā€œerror freeā€ by God in heaven - in other words, infallibility.

The following logical construct explains infallibility perfectly:

A. Christ gives St. Peter the authority/power to bind and loose on earth.

B. Christ tells St. Peter that when St. Peter exercises his power to bind and loose in earth, that which St. Peter binds and looses on earth will be considered bound and loosed in heaven.

C. God, as an omnipotent being, could never err or subscribe to error.

As: (A) St. Peter was given the power to bind and loose on earth, (B) whatever St. Peter binds and looses on earth is considered bound and loosed in heaven, (C) God cannot be held to a binding and loosening that was performed on earth by St. Peter in error, then:

(D) God must prevent St. Peter from erroneously binding and loosening.

Thus, the charism of infallibility on matters of faith and morals.
 
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