"Sola Scriptura" Before There Was a New Testament "Scriptura"

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I wonder how you sola scriptura denizens out there view the interstitial period between Pentecost and the publication of the various books of the NT between roughly 40 and 100 C.E. Does it weaken your thesis at all?

For its first 20+ years Christianity spread through Paul’s missions and through the preaching of the original apostles and others – but with no NT writings to point to. Paul starts to write letters to particular churches in the 40’s C.E., but they don’t get instantly copied (think about how tedious the copying process was back then!) nor instantly shared throughout the Mediterranean world (think about how long it took to travel from, say, Antioch to Rome in those days!). We don’t have any evidence that his letters were circulated widely until decades after they were penned.

Slowly, gospel-like stories begin to emerge, first as written collections of “sayings” (it would have been quite natural for the earliest Christians to write down the teachings and sayings of the Lord, particularly hortatory sayings like that referenced in 1 Tim. 5:18 or in Acts 20:35, which would have been useful even in the immediate aftermath of Pentecost). The Sermon on the Mount may not have been preserved in exactly the canonical form now found in Matthew, but it would not surprise me if some such collections were around quite early simply because of their utility as a manual for how to live while awaiting the Second Coming.

Later come the biographies and narratives of Jesus’s deeds, as those who were promised eternal life started physically dying with regularity (the “scandal” that may have sparked First Thessalonians, perhaps the earliest NT writing we have), which led to the emerging realization that the parousia might not be imminent and there could indeed be future generations to “save” – likely the impetus for the gospel genre. Narratives like the synoptics began to spring up in order to preserve eyewitness accounts. We don’t know how many were penned, although I presume that Luke 1:1 used the word “many” (Gk. polloi) properly.

My point is simply that for more than a generation, all that Christians had as inspired “Scripture” (graphē) was the OT. And chances are that they viewed it pretty much the way 2 Tim. 3:16 does – as useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, but not as salvific. The gospel of salvation through Christ was a matter of oral transmission alone, premised on the authority of eyewitness apostles long before they were declared by the four canonical gospels to possess such authority, and premised on the authority of those they commissioned to carry on their preaching.

Question: why should the writing of the NT end that authority? Whether you challenge the RCC as the repository of that authority today is a separate matter and not of any particular interest to me – but I am curious to understand your thinking regarding the replacement of apostolic authority with the NT canon.
 
I think some protestants say the Church was right for a time and then was wrong.
 
A typical, but erroneous Mormon claim. Matthew 16:18 must be disregarded in its entirety, or grossly twisted to make this claim. The self-assignment of “remnant” status must follow, as one needs constantly to justify the separation from mother Church. As we see, mankind is very capable of rationalizing anything.

Truth to tell, there was not even a defined canon for almost 400 years. We cannot and must not force our 21st century “bibles in every hand” mindset over the culture and reality of the ancient world. It took decades, even centuries for the catholic epistles to be fully distributed.

No UPS. No FedEx. No interwebz! No printing or binding until Gutenberg 14 centuries later. All letters were hand copied slowly, studiously. Due to the nature of the papyrus, they began disintegrating almost as soon as the ink dried.

For a fact, the Didache makes exactly zero mention of any written material. And, no one knows how long it took for Paul’s letter to Philemon (for but one example) to be recognized for its value, copied and fully distributed.

it must have been an agonizing process, what with all of this occurring while the Arian, and other heresies were raging and tearing the Church apart.
 
They just maintain that once God got it all together in written form, the deed was done- and so Christ’s disciples no longer needed to maintain a unified faith by oral means. The SS adherents virtually treat Scripture as a catechism, but one they often disagree on the meaning of while nonetheless practically worshiping it as God’s direct communication to them individually. Either way this allows them to circumvent, by dismissing, any claims to authority by any preexisting historical Church. Ironically, in this case, man remains his own authority with his private and personal interpretations/opinions while claiming to be hearing from God. It can take time to see through the fallacy of the doctrine of Sola Scriptura though, so attractive is it to many.
 
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Does this mythical “great apostacy” have some relevance to my OP?
 
Responding to Kei’s post. Sola scriptura denies the viability of Christ’s Church as the final authority, replacing it with the scriptures alone.

Sorry for any confusion or offense I have caused.
 
And there is the fact that even after the canon of Scripture is established in the late fourth Century, many of the poorer Churches would not have a complete set of the Scripture because of its cost. It would be difficult to show Sola Scriptura before modern printing techniques made books relatively inexpensive. Even a Gutenberg Bible would have been expensive; cheaper than a hand written copy, but still very expensive.
 
There are two reasons I’ve heard protestants give. First, they say that Jesus only gave authority to his 12 apostles. Once that generation passed away, no one after even their disciples had that authority. Extreme supporters of this will even disregard St. Paul entirely and not include anything he wrote in their personal Bible. Another reason I’ve seen is that once the Church started spending lots of money on basilicas and other visual aspects of the faith, they must have lost the message of Jesus. So there was a time when they followed Jesus and then later they fell away.
 
Even though St Paul was an apostle? I guess they’d deny apostolic succession?
 
But if protestants say that, shouldn’t we ask them: “if Jesus only gave authority to the 12 apostles, what does it really mean to say that Peter was the Rock on which He would build his church? Did He found a Church that would only live as long as the 12 apostles?”

What do you think?
 
I actually consider this a serious challenge. Nothing in Matt 16:18-19 or John 20:23 MUST be interpreted to mean that Jesus intended apostolic authority to be transferable to their successors. Rather, transferrability is something we INFER from the fact that the church outlasted that generation, i.e., that Jesus did not return within their lifespans as, arguably, He predicted He would (see Matt. 16:28, Mark 9:1, Luke 9:27).

I’ve read all manner of commentaries on what Jesus meant by this prediction, some bizarre, some plausible, none certain – ranging from the Transfiguration, to His resurrection, to Pentecost, to the success of the mid-First century church itself. The subject probably deserves its own post, particularly given the evidence that the early Church acted as though it expected His imminent return. Here, it suffices to note that if Jesus was predicting His Second Coming within 40-odd years (and, obviously, got it wrong), then we cannot infer anything definitive about His view of apostolic successorship merely from the age of the Church.
 
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I’ve heard arguments which says Jesus is obviously the authority, then when Jesus has asencended to heaven that leaves the Apostles with authority who had first hand encounter with Jesus. Then when these first hand people who had authority had written divinely inspired accounts it is these scriptures then becomes the authority. Because from then on no one had first hand experience.
 
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Didn’t Jesus say that it was not for him to decide when all that would happen? But to the Father? And the fact still remains, if what Protestants say is true, then there should be no physical church today right? Doesn’t their belief imply that the Church died with the apostles and all that is left is the faith and evangelizing efforts of individual informal Christians? Plus, don’t protestantes consider themselves the true inheritors of the Early Church?
 
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Didn’t Jesus say that it was not for him to decide when all that would happen? But to the Father?
Never mind saying it wasn’t for him to decide. He said he didn’t know. Matt. 24:36, Mark 13:32.
 
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I think when Jesus said to the Apostles…those who hear you hear me…wasn’t that authority to teach?
 
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I think when Jesus said to the Apostles…those who hear you hear me…wasn’t that authority to teach?
I mean, when He said that, included was authority of how to accomplish it as well
 
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Well, in any case, Jesus left a Church, not a bible. It is thanks to apostolic succession that a church that could establish a New Testament existed
 
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