H
hapaxparadidomi
Guest
I hope to receive an informed answer regarding this question. How are protestants able to maintain that the bible taught “It is the sole infallible authority in matters of faith and morals” and maintain the idea that the authors of the bible were teaching new revelation orally? The protestant view would in effect have an inspired author saying ‘There are no other inspired sources except this bible’. If that is the case, then that would negate that author from being inspired. How do you address that contradiction?