Brian -
I cant tell you how honored and excited I was to see that you read and responded to my
post #231! Honest! Now I feel like one of the “big boys” You up for a little more?!
Philthy: … It’s not that you
can’t interpret Scripture correctly, its that you can’t
know that you’ve interpreted it correctly without the RCC.
Brianberean: So how can you
know you’ve interpreted the official rulings of the RCC correctly? Everything you
know is interpreted through your fallible brain, right? And I would hardly call the Catholic Church “objective”.
Philthy: I think this is a bit desperate, no? The rulings are written in our native language, in our lifetime and edited expressly for the purposes of clarification - unlike Scripture. And the ruling body which produces the text is still around to answer any questions one might have - unlike Scripture.
Brianberean: Basically the definition of sola scriptura is: Scripture is our sole
infallible authority. Not our sole authority, just our sole infallible authority.
Philthy: Now we’re going in circles because this definition doesn’t refute what I said earlier(Post 231) about SS, so let me restate them with your new definition:
- Scripture doesn’t explicitly claim that it is our sole infallible authority - so the very claim is not scriptural and contrdradicts itself. Not a good start!
2.Scripture doesn’t define it’s components for us. The cannon was decided outside of scripture. Having Scripture as our sole
infallible authority, we have no scripture to go by. Again, not a small problem.
3.Scripture expressly calls the “church of the Living God” as the “pillar and foundation of Truth” (1Tim 3:15). Now the concept of Scripture as our sole
infallible authority is actually violating scripture.
I know you are intellingent and that the above points are well presented, so I have to assume that you believe that during the earliest years of the Church, Sola Scriptura was not yet functioning but that it became the rule of faith later? Like after the canon was set? Am I wrong on this? I mean how could it be the infallible authority before the canon was set?
Continued on next post…