BrianBerean << Maybe you can expound a little (really, just a little, no DA style response needed) to more clearly point out what problem you find. BTW…your quote is from pp. 130-31. >>
That must be the 1999 or whatever the latest version is. I have the 1997 version and the page numbers I listed are indeed correct for the 1997 version.
I’ll elaborate: saying Mary is “mother of the non-God part of Jesus” or Mary is “mother of the humanity of Jesus” only, is Nestorian. Also saying they worshipped “the person of Christ who happened to be embodied” is Nestorian, separating Christ into two persons, one human person, and another divine person.
There is no Monophysitism nor Nestorianism in the orthodox Catholic understanding that Mary is the mother of God, since Mary is the mother of Jesus and Jesus is God the Son, second person of the Trinity. Christ is one person, a Divine Person who is both God and Man. That’s the orthodox Christian teaching.
The orthodox Christian doesn’t say “some of Jesus is God” but Jesus is fully God or 100% God. Jesus is also fully man or 100% man. “All of Jesus is God” is fine if by that you mean “Jesus is fully God.” Then Yes. We need to be precise, as was Nicaea, Chalcedon, etc.
The implication “some of Jesus is God” implies Jesus is 50% God, or part God, part man, which is not orthodox. That’s why that terminology is wrong and confused. It’s not hard, just pick up a book on the Creeds or Christology. Basically Svendsen thinks he’s being clever trying to be anti-Catholic, but he’s really just being silly.
Phil P