Solo vs Sola Scriptura:

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  1. There is no such thing as Sola Biblica - you are creating a strawman.
What is Sola Biblica? A more accurate way to say what I said is…the Bible as we have it today did not exist for the first 400 years of Christianity. You put words in my mouth. Strawman.
  1. The early Christians DID. Even Jesus.
The Old Testament, yes. Not the New Testament. Thus, the Bible as we have it today did not exist.
  1. Jesus Himself referred SPECIFICALLY to Scripture, by that very term, 22 times.
Yes, the Old Testament.
  1. If you want to argue that Jesus could not have used Scripture or considered Scripture to exist, then your problem is with Jesus - not me.
That’s not my argument.
 
Matthew 21:42
Matthew 22:29
Matthew 26:54
Matthew 26:56
Mark 12:10
Mark 12:24
Mark 14:40
Mark 15;28
Luke 4:21
Luke 24:27
Luke 24:32
Luke 24:45
John 2:22
John 5:39
John 7:38
John 10:35
John 13:18
John 17:12
John 19:24
John 19:36
John 19:37
John 20:9
Acts 8:32
Acts 8:35
Acts 17:2
Acts 17:11
Acts 18:24
Acts 18:28
Romans 1:2
Romans 4:3
Roamns 9:17
Romans 10:11
Romans 11:2
Romans 15:4
Romans 16:26
1 Cor. 15:3
1 Cor. 15:4
Gal. 3:8
Gal. 3:22
Gal. 4:30
1 Tim. 5:18
2 Tim. 3:16
James 2:8
James 2:2
James 4:5
1 Peter 2:6
2 Peter 1:20
2 Peter 3:16

None of them needed The Catholic Church to tell them anything. And it didn’t.
How did they know those passages were inspired? How do *you *know they are inspired?
 
What is Sola Biblica?

You put words in my mouth. Strawman.
Here is what you posted:
How did the early Christians do this for the first 400 years of Christianity? There was no Bible.
  1. No one said there was.
  2. We’re not discussing Sola Biblica - the praxis of embracing THE BIBLE as the rule/canon in the evaluation of teachings. It’s called Sola SCRIPTURA because it is the embrace of SCRIPTURE as the rule/canon. It’s moot now, of course (so I fail to see your point), but yes - of course, the size of the corpus of Scripture increased from 1400 BC to 90 AD - if you check your calendar, you’ll see that it’s now 2010.
  3. Your statement was that the early Christians could not have known what was and was not Scripture. I referenced the following:
Matthew 21:42
Matthew 22:29
Matthew 26:54
Matthew 26:56
Mark 12:10
Mark 12:24
Mark 14:40
Mark 15;28
Luke 4:21
Luke 24:27
Luke 24:32
Luke 24:45
John 2:22
John 5:39
John 7:38
John 10:35
John 13:18
John 17:12
John 19:24
John 19:36
John 19:37
John 20:9
Acts 8:32
Acts 8:35
Acts 17:2
Acts 17:11
Acts 18:24
Acts 18:28
Romans 1:2
Romans 4:3
Roamns 9:17
Romans 10:11
Romans 11:2
Romans 15:4
Romans 16:26
1 Cor. 15:3
1 Cor. 15:4
Gal. 3:8
Gal. 3:22
Gal. 4:30
1 Tim. 5:18
2 Tim. 3:16
James 2:8
James 2:2
James 4:5
1 Peter 2:6
2 Peter 1:20
2 Peter 3:16
The Bible as we have it today did not exist.
If there was such a thing as Sola Biblica, you might have a point (however moot in 2010), but there’s no such thing and this thread is about Sola SCRIPTURA. Read the Scriptures I referenced. See if Scripture was embraced before any denomination did anything about this, see if such was used normatively (known as Sola Scriptura).

Then read them to see if Jesus ever once used The Catholic Church as normative, or once mentioned it, or if He stated that it (exclusively, particularly, solely and perpetually) is infallible, incapable of error (in these matters), unaccountable, exempt from norming, and whatever it and it itself exclusively says is just to be accepted as correct “with docility?”

Thank you.

Pax
  • Josiah
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Josiah:
Matthew 21:42
Matthew 22:29
Matthew 26:54
Matthew 26:56
Mark 12:10
Mark 12:24
Mark 14:40
Mark 15;28
Luke 4:21
Luke 24:27
Luke 24:32
Luke 24:45
John 2:22
John 5:39
John 7:38
John 10:35
John 13:18
John 17:12
John 19:24
John 19:36
John 19:37
John 20:9
Acts 8:32
Acts 8:35
Acts 17:2
Acts 17:11
Acts 18:24
Acts 18:28
Romans 1:2
Romans 4:3
Roamns 9:17
Romans 10:11
Romans 11:2
Romans 15:4
Romans 16:26
1 Cor. 15:3
1 Cor. 15:4
Gal. 3:8
Gal. 3:22
Gal. 4:30
1 Tim. 5:18
2 Tim. 3:16
James 2:8
James 2:2
James 4:5
1 Peter 2:6
2 Peter 1:20
2 Peter 3:16
.

How did they know those passages were inspired? How do *you *know they are inspired?
OBVIOUSLY, none needed The Catholic Church to tell 'em. It didn’t hold a meeting about this until some 400 years LATER. BTW, the Israelites didn’t need The Catholic Church to tell them that the Ten Commandments were Scriptures, either - and that was 1,800 years before that meeting. Scriptures existed, were embraced as such and were used normatively (“Sola Scriptura”) centuries before that meeting you have in mind… Your point (moot today anyway) is baseless.

.
 
It’s called Sola SCRIPTURA because it is the embrace of SCRIPTURE as the rule/canon. It’s moot now, of course (so I fail to see your point),
My point was to show that you accept the Catholic Church’s Authority if you believe those scripture passages you quoted are inspired.
but yes - of course, the size of the corpus of Scripture increased from 1400 BC to 90 AD - if you check your calendar, you’ll see that it’s now 2010.
Who decided what was added to scripture to make the size of the corpus increase?
Then read them to see if Jesus ever once used The Catholic Church as normative, or once mentioned it, or if He stated that it (exclusively, particularly, solely and perpetually) is infallible, incapable of error (in these matters), unaccountable, exempt from norming, and whatever it and it itself exclusively says is just to be accepted as correct “with docility?”
Jesus founded his Church (the Catholic Church) while on the Cross. The “coming out” party of the Church was on Pentecost. You bring up infallibility. That is probably suited for another thread.
 
Lost me…

We’re discussing Sola SCRIPTURA. There is no such thing as Sola Biblica. Sola Scriptura is the embrace of Scripture as the rule/canon in the norming of doctrines. Yes, we regard the OT as Scripture and we regard the NT as Scripture - thus both are Scripture. Does The Catholic Church disagree with that? Sola Scriptura is the embrace of SCRIPTURE as the rule/canon.
Are you telling me that we are defending the use of something that we don’t know what it is?

That, AmericanJosiah, is the crux of the matter. If no one can define what Scripture is, then sola scriptura is useless.

Observe:
  1. Christian A insists that only the Old Testament is Scripture, and bases his whole faith on it.
  2. Christian B insists that only the New Testament is Scripture, and bases his whole faith on it.
  3. Christian C insists that the whole Bible according to the canon of the Catholic Church is Scripture, and bases his whole faith on it.
  4. Christian D insists that the whole Catholic Bible except the Deuterocanonical books is Scripture, and bases his whole faith on it.
So, AmericanJosiah, according to the provided definition of sola scriptura, who will be saved?
The Catholic Church rejects the Rule of Scripture for exactly the same reason as the others that do (LDS and all the cults): it rejects accountability for the teachings of it and it itself alone, exclusively: thus it rejects norming and everything associated with norming - including whatever might serve as the norma normans in such. The alternative is this: each insists that whatever each says is simply to be accepted as correct “with docility” “as God speaking.”
Sola scriptura, much more than the doctrine of Tradition, Magisterium, and Scripture as sources of faith which cannot contradict with each other (which is the teaching of the Catholic Church) leads to less accountability.

If not, then there should be thousands of Roman Catholic Churches and much less Protestant Churches now.
 
OBVIOUSLY, none needed The Catholic Church to tell 'em.
So you think they (the early Christians) just automatically knew that the Gospels of Matthew, Mark, Luke and John were inspired and that the Gospels of Bartholomew, Barnabas, Peter and Mary were not inspired?
Scriptures existed, were embraced as such and were used normatively (“Sola Scriptura”) centuries before that meeting you have in mind… Your point (moot today anyway) is baseless.
The early Christians embraced sola scripture? I am interested in which early Church fathers embraced this heresy. Could you tell me?
 
BTW, the Israelites didn’t need The Catholic Church to tell them that the Ten Commandments were Scriptures, either - and that was 1,800 years before that meeting.
During Old Testament times, God sent judges, prophets, and priests to keep his people doctrinally sound. Revelation was ongoing at that point. But with the coming of Christ, God completed public revelation and so established an infallible authority (his Church) to guard and interpret the fullness of that revelation. That is one reason why the Old Testament Jews did not have an infallible authority.
 
Truly, one can only define what the Catholic Church is. But never define a Protestant or Evangelical’s view. Why? Because there are only two Christian beliefs: (1) Catholic Faith or (2) non-Catholic Christian Faith.

There are a lot of Solo/Sola Scriptura interpretations out there, but there is only one interpretation of “solo Verbum Dei” which is that of the Catholic Church.

If God gave himself over to Man completely out of his Love for us, then He must have given responsibility (under the Holy Spirit) of handling the Truth. That responsibility (or role) will never be revoked nor the support of the Holy Spirit be withdrawn.

God never withdrew the authority of the High Priest conferred by Moses (see “Moses Seat” verses) until the time of Jesus on the Cross. The same will happen until the arrival of Jesus himself at the Ends of Time.
 
Originally Posted by JoeT777
The Roman Catholic Church is the most sound right and sole rule of faith.
So, the best norma normans for the evaluations of the teachings of a teacher are the teachings of that teacher? Do you think that’s a bit circular, a classic case of circular authentication? This is the rubric you wish to defend as the most sound in determining the correctness of a teacher: “I alone agree with I along so I alone an infallibly correct”?.
This seems a bit pointless, but if you would be a correct, phase it as follows: The Church is a divinely constituted body to keep the deposit of faith holding primacy and authority of matters related to all things, especially those related to matters of doctrine, morals and ethics.

And he is the head of the body, the church: who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that in all things he may hold the primacy Col 1:18

And he has subjected all things under his feet and has made him head over all the church, Eph 1:22

Joet
 
How would the early Christians have known those were the inspired books?
Here’s what I don’t understand. A Protestant says well the 7 Sacraments were not officially defined until such and such a counsel and is told, nah that counsel just affirmed what we always believed. Then a Protestant says that the books of the Bible as inspired was declared at a counsel but just affirmed what was always believed and Catholics say no it was officially declared at the counsel and that’s all that matters.

Alright guys, make up your minds and get back to me when you manage to agree with yourselfs.
 
  1. Christian A insists that only the Old Testament is Scripture, and bases his whole faith on it.
  2. Christian B insists that only the New Testament is Scripture, and bases his whole faith on it.
  3. Christian C insists that the whole Bible according to the canon of the Catholic Church is Scripture, and bases his whole faith on it.
  4. Christian D insists that the whole Catholic Bible except the Deuterocanonical books is Scripture, and bases his whole faith on it.
  5. Christian E insists that the whole Orthodox Bible including books that the Catholics eliminate is Scripture and bases his whole faith on it.
  6. Christian F insists that the whole Etheopian Bible including books that even the Orthodox eliminate is Scripture and bases his whole faith on it.
  7. Christian G insists that the whole Catholic Bible and what some group of men say is Scripture and bases his whole faith on it.
 
So, AmericanJosiah, according to the provided definition of sola scriptura, who will be saved?
Sola Scriptura has nothing to do with salvation, as you know. Sola Scriptura (aka the Rule of Scripture) is the praxis of embracing Scripture as the rule/canon in the norming of doctrines.
That, AmericanJosiah, is the crux of the matter. If no one can define what Scripture is, then sola scriptura is useless.
Then all of the following statements and practices by Jesus, James, Paul and Peter are useless and you rebuke them for using the title “Scripture” and using thus normatively (“Sola Scriptura”):

Matthew 21:42
Matthew 22:29
Matthew 26:54
Matthew 26:56
Mark 12:10
Mark 12:24
Mark 14:40
Mark 15;28
Luke 4:21
Luke 24:27
Luke 24:32
Luke 24:45
John 2:22
John 5:39
John 7:38
John 10:35
John 13:18
John 17:12
John 19:24
John 19:36
John 19:37
John 20:9
Acts 8:32
Acts 8:35
Acts 17:2
Acts 17:11
Acts 18:24
Acts 18:28
Romans 1:2
Romans 4:3
Roamns 9:17
Romans 10:11
Romans 11:2
Romans 15:4
Romans 16:26
1 Cor. 15:3
1 Cor. 15:4
Gal. 3:8
Gal. 3:22
Gal. 4:30
1 Tim. 5:18
2 Tim. 3:16
James 2:8
James 2:2
James 4:5
1 Peter 2:6
2 Peter 1:20
2 Peter 3:16
  1. Christian A insists that only the Old Testament is Scripture, and bases his whole faith on it.
  2. Christian B insists that only the New Testament is Scripture, and bases his whole faith on it.
  3. Christian C insists that the whole Bible according to the canon of the Catholic Church is Scripture, and bases his whole faith on it.
  4. Christian D insists that the whole Catholic Bible except the Deuterocanonical books is Scripture, and bases his whole faith on it.
We all know that The Catholic Church has a UNIQUE set of Scriptures - no other on the planet does (or ever has) agreed with The Catholic Church on this. Frankly, that’s a problem for you to take up with The Catholic Church - why no other Christian body has ever agreed with it on this point. But it’s moot to the discussion here. Sola Scriptura is the embrace of Scripture as the rule/canon. Now, it’s true, the corpus of Scripture the Eastern Orthodox embraces is different than that which The Catholic Church does, but then EVERY OTHER is going to be different than what The Catholic Church embraces because it’s embrace is unique to exclusively itself. But that doesn’t change the praxis, does it? In the Rule of Law, the praxis is the the law is normative. Now, it doesn’t matter that the law in New Jersey is not identical to the law in California - the praxis of The Rule of Law is the same. You have a moot point in another sense, too. Yes - under this praxis, The Catholic Church would be “justified” in using 2 Macc (and it does) - and as a Protestant, I permit that. As a Lutheran, I cannot (because Lutheranism NEITHER embraces or rejects the book). We’re off topic (the praxis doesn’t declare what is or is not Scripture - a praxis doesn’t declare or teach ANYTHING), but to briefly address that (Mods - cut me some slack here!), it’s just moot. Lutherans actually quote the CATHOLIC unique books more than Catholics do; Luther preached from them, taught them, included them in his translation, they are referenced in the Lutheran Confessions (just not declared to be Scriptures there). It makes no difference. In all my years in Catholicism, I heard them read RARELY in the lectionary - but that was it. They are simply moot to anyone. The ONLY point of doctrine ever raised from them has to do with purgatory, but the verse there offers nothing to support the unique Catholic doctrine (as all the Orthodox groups also view - and yet they DO accept that book as Scripture) - so, it’s just moot. Go ahead, The Catholic Church can use its totally unique set of books, the Eastern Orthodox can use their unique set of books, the Oriental Orthodox can use their various unique sets of books - in doing so, they can all practice Sola Scriptura, but it makes no difference as we together norm the doctrines among us. Your point - while off topic and interesting - just doesn’t matter. With the POSSIBLE exception of a single verse in one of those books, NONE use any of it for the confirmation of doctrine. And the only verse that is used (and that only by ONE) is moot - as the other that embraces that as Scripture agrees.

Friend, do you think doctrine concerning our souls matters? Do you think the teachers of such should be held accountable for what they teach? IF so (and as a Catholic, I realize you are not so permitted), then you have embraced norming. And the issue becomes WHAT best serves among us now as the norma normans for this norming?

Thank you.

Pax
  • Josiah
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Redbert posted;
I think the burden of proof is now on you to provide any reliable reference to validate your understanding of the meaning of the doctrine.
Why would we bear the burden of proof about a doctrine we don’t even teach? It’s your error…you clean it up.

🤷
I’m not a lawyer … but I think it is obvious that you just changed context.

I was asking you to provide a reference for DEFINITION that YOU use
I was not asking for proof of a doctrine that you don’t support.
:tsktsk:
 
The Old Testament existed in Jesus’ time. That’s fact. The inspired books of the NT existed as late as 90AD. So did many, many other writings. Did all of the early Christians know precisely which ones were and were not inspired? No. Here are some of the books/letters/writings that were floating around at the time that did not make it into the Bible because the Catholic Church authoritatively decided they were not inspired.
define:“at that time”

do you mean 400 AD or 90 AD ?
 
But there sure is a fixed definition of what it is NOT

and it is NOT that “all Christian beliefs must come from the Bible”
Sorry friend, but you are wrong. There is no “sure” definition of what is and, therefore, what is not sola scriptura. It remains a moving target. I would personally agree with you that SS is not “all knowledge is contained in the Bible”, but beyond that it’s anybodies guess.
so even though I have presented definitions of Sola Scriptura from
catholic.com
New Advent.org

wiki
Methodists,
Baptists
historical understandings,
protestants authors:
**that all agree **that SS does NOT means “**all **Christian beliefs must come from the Bible”: you will continue to claim that it does?
I wont claim anything regarding SS because it is an invention that continues to mutate. What is true of it today may not have been true of it yesterday and may not be true of it tomorrow. It is at the whim of some invisible consensus of non-authoritative adherents. That invisible consensus remains dynamic and will never nor can never be fixed for all time.
I think the burden of proof is now on you to provide any reliable reference to validate your understanding of the meaning of the doctrine.
Yeah, nice try but it dont fly. We dont respect the authority of anyone who claims to define the doctrine - including you! If we had an authoritative reference it would come from the Vatican and you would, of course, reject it! Apart from that, we have no single “reliable reference”; we have thousands of equally unreliable, unauthoritative references. I personally don’t believe SS exists except in the minds of those who adhere to their personal understanding of it. And I believe the burden of proof is upon you to provide an authoritative definition of it, which, of course you cannot and will not do because as soon as you do it will contradict several of the sources you listed above. You can argue 'till your blue in the face, but creating a definition of SS remains a tradition of men and nothing else. Like I said: What else is there to discuss?
 
JoeT777;6331970 said:
Can one find the salvation of God through the scriptures alone?
No, /QUOTE]

Could not disagree with you more:

I can’t beleive that is the postion of the Catholic Church.

Can anyone verfiy “one cannot find the fullness of Christ’s salvation in ‘Scriptures alone”?
I believe the position of the Church is that while one MAY find “the salvation of God through the scriptures alone” there remains the distinct possibility that they will not and will be unaware that they have not found it. The NT is not especially clear on a number of issues - that is why there has been so many different understandings of what is required of one to find the “salvation of God” among Protestant Sola Scripturists.
 
Sorry friend, but you are wrong. There is no “sure” definition of what is and, therefore, what is not sola scriptura. It remains a moving target. I would personally agree with you that SS is not “all knowledge is contained in the Bible”,
Thank you for that one point:

It is a shame others won’t even take that step!
 
  1. Christian E insists that the whole Orthodox Bible including books that the Catholics eliminate is Scripture and bases his whole faith on it.
  2. Christian F insists that the whole Etheopian Bible including books that even the Orthodox eliminate is Scripture and bases his whole faith on it.
  3. Christian G insists that the whole Catholic Bible and what some group of men say is Scripture and bases his whole faith on it.
THANK YOU Drawmack for that.
Sola Scriptura has nothing to do with salvation, as you know. Sola Scriptura (aka the Rule of Scripture) is the praxis of embracing Scripture as the rule/canon in the norming of doctrines.

Then all of the following statements and practices by Jesus, James, Paul and Peter are useless and you rebuke them for using the title “Scripture” and using thus normatively (“Sola Scriptura”):

Matthew 21:42
Matthew 22:29
Matthew 26:54
Matthew 26:56
Mark 12:10
Mark 12:24
Mark 14:40
Mark 15;28
Luke 4:21
Luke 24:27
Luke 24:32
Luke 24:45
John 2:22
John 5:39
John 7:38
John 10:35
John 13:18
John 17:12
John 19:24
John 19:36
John 19:37
John 20:9
Acts 8:32
Acts 8:35
Acts 17:2
Acts 17:11
Acts 18:24
Acts 18:28
Romans 1:2
Romans 4:3
Roamns 9:17
Romans 10:11
Romans 11:2
Romans 15:4
Romans 16:26
1 Cor. 15:3
1 Cor. 15:4
Gal. 3:8
Gal. 3:22
Gal. 4:30
1 Tim. 5:18
2 Tim. 3:16
James 2:8
James 2:2
James 4:5
1 Peter 2:6
2 Peter 1:20
2 Peter 3:16

We all know that The Catholic Church has a UNIQUE set of Scriptures - no other on the planet does (or ever has) agreed with The Catholic Church on this. Frankly, that’s a problem for you to take up with The Catholic Church - why no other Christian body has ever agreed with it on this point. But it’s moot to the discussion here. Sola Scriptura is the embrace of Scripture as the rule/canon. Now, it’s true, the corpus of Scripture the Eastern Orthodox embraces is different than that which The Catholic Church does, but then EVERY OTHER is going to be different than what The Catholic Church embraces because it’s embrace is unique to exclusively itself. But that doesn’t change the praxis, does it? In the Rule of Law, the praxis is the the law is normative. Now, it doesn’t matter that the law in New Jersey is not identical to the law in California - the praxis of The Rule of Law is the same. You have a moot point in another sense, too. Yes - under this praxis, The Catholic Church would be “justified” in using 2 Macc (and it does) - and as a Protestant, I permit that. As a Lutheran, I cannot (because Lutheranism NEITHER embraces or rejects the book). We’re off topic (the praxis doesn’t declare what is or is not Scripture - a praxis doesn’t declare or teach ANYTHING), but to briefly address that (Mods - cut me some slack here!), it’s just moot. Lutherans actually quote the CATHOLIC unique books more than Catholics do; Luther preached from them, taught them, included them in his translation, they are referenced in the Lutheran Confessions (just not declared to be Scriptures there). It makes no difference. In all my years in Catholicism, I heard them read RARELY in the lectionary - but that was it. They are simply moot to anyone. The ONLY point of doctrine ever raised from them has to do with purgatory, but the verse there offers nothing to support the unique Catholic doctrine (as all the Orthodox groups also view - and yet they DO accept that book as Scripture) - so, it’s just moot. Go ahead, The Catholic Church can use its totally unique set of books, the Eastern Orthodox can use their unique set of books, the Oriental Orthodox can use their various unique sets of books - in doing so, they can all practice Sola Scriptura, but it makes no difference as we together norm the doctrines among us. Your point - while off topic and interesting - just doesn’t matter. With the POSSIBLE exception of a single verse in one of those books, NONE use any of it for the confirmation of doctrine. And the only verse that is used (and that only by ONE) is moot - as the other that embraces that as Scripture agrees.

Friend, do you think doctrine concerning our souls matters? Do you think the teachers of such should be held accountable for what they teach? IF so (and as a Catholic, I realize you are not so permitted), then you have embraced norming. And the issue becomes WHAT best serves among us now as the norma normans for this norming?

Thank you.

Pax
  • Josiah
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And I am still am waiting for a definition of Scripture.

See? It is not the Catholic Church that makes herself unaccountable, but Protestants like YOU AmericanJosiah, for all this confusion of thousands of Protestant Churches. At least when the Catholic Church proclaims her doctrines, these said doctrines are very very extensively explained up to the last detail, and they are published for all the world to read, peruse, critique, deconstruct, and even mangle.

But here I am just asking what is the definition of a term used in this doctrine of sola scriptura, a very basic term—so basic in fact that it is part of the name of the doctrine, and you cannot give me an answer, but a long convoluted beating-around the bush answer that it is not even close to the question I asked!

And we have not even gone to the rest of the doctrine, but we have just started at the very name of the doctrine!

So unless you can give all of us a definition of Scripture, you cannot accuse the Catholic Church for being unaccountable, for all of her doctrines have been at least defined the terms used, especially the infallible ones, and the world has always been free to accept or deny them.
 
Sola Scriptura has nothing to do with salvation, as you know. Sola Scriptura (aka the Rule of Scripture) is the praxis of embracing Scripture as the rule/canon in the norming of doctrines.

Then all of the following statements and practices by Jesus, James, Paul and Peter are useless and you rebuke them for using the title “Scripture” and using thus normatively (“Sola Scriptura”):

Matthew 21:42
Matthew 22:29
Matthew 26:54
Matthew 26:56
Mark 12:10
Mark 12:24
Mark 14:40
Mark 15;28
Luke 4:21
Luke 24:27
Luke 24:32
Luke 24:45
John 2:22
John 5:39
John 7:38
John 10:35
John 13:18
John 17:12
John 19:24
John 19:36
John 19:37
John 20:9
Acts 8:32
Acts 8:35
Acts 17:2
Acts 17:11
Acts 18:24
Acts 18:28
Romans 1:2
Romans 4:3
Roamns 9:17
Romans 10:11
Romans 11:2
Romans 15:4
Romans 16:26
1 Cor. 15:3
1 Cor. 15:4
Gal. 3:8
Gal. 3:22
Gal. 4:30
1 Tim. 5:18
2 Tim. 3:16
James 2:8
James 2:2
James 4:5
1 Peter 2:6
2 Peter 1:20
2 Peter 3:16

We all know that The Catholic Church has a UNIQUE set of Scriptures - no other on the planet does (or ever has) agreed with The Catholic Church on this. Frankly, that’s a problem for you to take up with The Catholic Church - why no other Christian body has ever agreed with it on this point. But it’s moot to the discussion here. Sola Scriptura is the embrace of Scripture as the rule/canon. Now, it’s true, the corpus of Scripture the Eastern Orthodox embraces is different than that which The Catholic Church does, but then EVERY OTHER is going to be different than what The Catholic Church embraces because it’s embrace is unique to exclusively itself. But that doesn’t change the praxis, does it? In the Rule of Law, the praxis is the the law is normative. Now, it doesn’t matter that the law in New Jersey is not identical to the law in California - the praxis of The Rule of Law is the same. You have a moot point in another sense, too. Yes - under this praxis, The Catholic Church would be “justified” in using 2 Macc (and it does) - and as a Protestant, I permit that. As a Lutheran, I cannot (because Lutheranism NEITHER embraces or rejects the book). We’re off topic (the praxis doesn’t declare what is or is not Scripture - a praxis doesn’t declare or teach ANYTHING), but to briefly address that (Mods - cut me some slack here!), it’s just moot. Lutherans actually quote the CATHOLIC unique books more than Catholics do; Luther preached from them, taught them, included them in his translation, they are referenced in the Lutheran Confessions (just not declared to be Scriptures there). It makes no difference. In all my years in Catholicism, I heard them read RARELY in the lectionary - but that was it. They are simply moot to anyone. The ONLY point of doctrine ever raised from them has to do with purgatory, but the verse there offers nothing to support the unique Catholic doctrine (as all the Orthodox groups also view - and yet they DO accept that book as Scripture) - so, it’s just moot. Go ahead, The Catholic Church can use its totally unique set of books, the Eastern Orthodox can use their unique set of books, the Oriental Orthodox can use their various unique sets of books - in doing so, they can all practice Sola Scriptura, but it makes no difference as we together norm the doctrines among us. Your point - while off topic and interesting - just doesn’t matter. With the POSSIBLE exception of a single verse in one of those books, NONE use any of it for the confirmation of doctrine. And the only verse that is used (and that only by ONE) is moot - as the other that embraces that as Scripture agrees.

Friend, do you think doctrine concerning our souls matters? Do you think the teachers of such should be held accountable for what they teach? IF so (and as a Catholic, I realize you are not so permitted), then you have embraced norming. And the issue becomes WHAT best serves among us now as the norma normans for this norming?

Thank you.

Pax
  • Josiah
.
Josiah,
Let’s review what we’ve learned:
  • What constituted scripture in 700BC was different than what constituted scripture in 33AD which was different than 107AD , which was different than 382AD.
  • Even today, Different groups don’t agree on what constitutes valid scripture.
  • Even when there is agreement on what is legitimate scripture, without a valid interpreter, people come to different understanding from the save scriptural passages
  • By selective usage, people claim that scripture means almost anything. Even Satan uses scripture to tempt Jesus in Luke 4
So tell us again, how Scripture alone can possibly the norm against what all moral teaching is judged, if there is not agreement on what scipture is and what it means?

I think we’ve already agreed that there are truths that are not covered in scriptures and that this is not part of Sola Scriptura.

So what is left?

Oh, and by the way, OF COURSE Jesus and the Apostles quoted scripture. The scripture that they were quoting gave basic moral teachings and also prophesized on the events that came to fruition with Jesus. But they also taught more than was in their existing scripture, did they not? In fact, more than 27 more books worth (the 27 New testament books plus the truths that are held within tradition.
 
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