M
midori
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Woah. On a totally different note, I went to go link to the “Church Teaching/Soul/Conception” thread to fast-forward about fifty posts’ worth of discussion, and saw the thread had really been scrubbed. ![Frowning face with open mouth :frowning: 😦](https://cdn.jsdelivr.net/joypixels/assets/8.0/png/unicode/64/1f626.png)
![Frowning face with open mouth :frowning: 😦](https://cdn.jsdelivr.net/joypixels/assets/8.0/png/unicode/64/1f626.png)
Right. So, then, you are talking about misunderstandings of biology.No.
I am talking about what the poster really means by “human soul” at conception.
It is not defined Church teaching that it must be an immortal, intellective, spiritual “human soul”.
It could be a progressing vegetative “human soul”
No. What biological misunderstanding exactly do you refer to?Right. So, then, you are talking about misunderstandings of biology.
A somewhat vague statement of the issue.the faulty scientific notion that a human wasn’t present in the womb until the ‘quickening’.
The Church does not currently teach a human person/individual is present at the moment of conception. Some recent Popes state strong personal views on the matter but explicitly state they do not pretend to settle this philosophic question.In other words, the Church teaches that as soon as there’s a human person, there’s an immortal soul.
We do, but that wasn’t the point you raised. You mentioned the Church teaching being contrary to that for 1700 years. Aquinas mentions it here, in ST III.27.1, ad 4Gorgias:![]()
No. What biological misunderstanding exactly do you refer to?Right. So, then, you are talking about misunderstandings of biology.
A somewhat vague statement of the issue.the faulty scientific notion that a human wasn’t present in the womb until the ‘quickening’.
We all agree human life is present from conception.
Really? It doesn’t…?The Church does not currently teach a human person/individual is present at the moment of conception.
You’re familiar with the Catechism, aren’t you? It’s the teaching of the Church.1703 Endowed with “a spiritual and immortal” soul, the human person is “the only creature on earth that God has willed for its own sake.” From his conception, he is destined for eternal beatitude.
365 The unity of soul and body is so profound that one has to consider the soul to be the “form” of the body: i.e., it is because of its spiritual soul that the body made of matter becomes a living, human body; spirit and matter, in man, are not two natures united, but rather their union forms a single nature.
366 The Church teaches that every spiritual soul is created immediately by God
Really it doesn’t.Really? It doesn’t…?
Catechism of the Catholic Church:
1703 Endowed with “a spiritual and immortal” soul, the human person is “the only creature on earth that God has willed for its own sake.” From his conception, he is destined for eternal beatitude.
365 The unity of soul and body is so profound that one has to consider the soul to be the “form” of the body: i.e., it is because of its spiritual soul that the body made of matter becomes a living, human body; spirit and matter, in man, are not two natures united, but rather their union forms a single nature.
366 The Church teaches that every spiritual soul is created immediately by God
You’re familiar with the Catechism, aren’t you? It’s the teaching of the Church.![]()
Do you mean this position?Where is the silver bullet above that you believe denies my very specifically stated position?
If so, then I’ve already demonstrated it:The Church does not currently teach a human person/individual is present at the moment of conception.
What’s the referent for ‘his’ and ‘he’ in the second sentence above (from the Catechism)? It’s “the human person”. In other words, the sentence reads “from [the human person’s] conception, he is destined for eternal beatitude.”Endowed with “a spiritual and immortal” soul, the human person is “the only creature on earth that God has willed for its own sake.” From his conception, he is destined for eternal beatitude.
Yes I thought you were taking this simplistic “proof-texting” approach.Endowed with “a spiritual and immortal” soul, the human person is “the only creature on earth that God has willed for its own sake.” From his conception, he is destined for eternal beatitude.
What’s the referent for ‘his’ and ‘he’ in the second sentence above (from the Catechism)? It’s “the human person”.
In fact it is hardly clear that the 2nd sentence is at all trying to make the singular claim you are reading into it.
In 1711 it summarises, “the human person is from his very conception ordered to God”.
It doesn’t intrinsically say “the human person is such at conception.” Its saying the human person today was always ordered to being a [rational] human person from conception. That is different.
If it did mean what you want it to then surrounding indications ought to vindicate your reading. But context doesn’t.
The bits quoted here from GS have nothing to do with the point you are trying to make.
- The references that your CCC quote above refers to is GS (GS 14 § 2, GS 15 § 2, GS 24 § 3).
- Strangely GS doesn’t teach what you assert.
- There is no other place in the CCC that says what you want.
- No Encyclical formally teaches what you assert.
It has a lot more to do with saying human nature was made in God’s image as a personal being and on that account is destined to be with God from conception. That is not the same as asserting man must possess a “human nature” (ie an individual person) at the moment of conception.
This is typical of a “proof texting approach”. You are simply exploiting a close sounding expression or a linkage between sentences that isn’t really there. The context simply doesn’t match what you say at all.
No Encyclical states what you assert is in the Catechism (and these two sentences then are all you have anywhere). That is an extraordinary isolation if what you say were true.
In short, saying “the human person is from his very conception ordered to God” is saying no more than “from his very conception man is ordered to God.”
A man, when a zygote, is of course be ordered to God regardless of ensoulment issues. The Church taught that for 1700 years afterall.
So when you can find a formal quote that matches context I am willing to look at it.
Good luck with that.
This appears to be a distinction without a difference. I appreciate that you seem to want to make it say that, but it really can’t be any more clear than it is. You really have to twist the sentence into a pretzel in order to change its meaning in order to make it mean what you want it to mean.In 1711 it summarises, “the human person is from his very conception ordered to God”.
It doesn’t intrinsically say “the human person is such at conception.” Its saying the human person today was always ordered to being a [rational] human person from conception. That is different.
The sentence I’m quoting isn’t footnoted to GS. Ones near it are, but this one is not. Therefore, it doesn’t detract from the words of the CCC that GS (which isn’t footnoted at that sentence) doesn’t make this explicit claim.The references that your CCC quote above refers to is GS (GS 14 § 2, GS 15 § 2, GS 24 § 3).
So… the Catechism doesn’t teach what it plainly says, just because it isn’t repeated in GS?Strangely GS doesn’t teach what you assert.
You’re slipping. I quoted from two distinct places in the Catechism. 1703 was one, and 365-66 was another. So, yeah… the Catechism does make this point elsewhere.There is no other place in the CCC that says what you want.
Are encyclicals the only vehicle by which the Church teaches?No Encyclical formally teaches what you assert.
Well just read Gaudium et Spes in full then from which CCC articles 1703 and 1711 reference.BlackFriar:![]()
This appears to be a distinction without a difference.In 1711 it summarises, “the human person is from his very conception ordered to God”.
It doesn’t intrinsically say “the human person is such at conception.” Its saying the human person today was always ordered to being a [rational] human person from conception. That is different.
Absolutely correct. You have simply superficially proof-texted and exploited an ambiguity completely unsupported by context or references.So… the Catechism doesn’t teach what it plainly says, just because it isn’t repeated in GS?![]()
You were the one who stated 1703 was your silver bullet (actually if I was taking a proof-texting approach surely 1711 says what you want better? There’s also a GS ref for that article too).Blackfriar:There is no other place in the CCC that says what you want.
Gorgias: You’re slipping. I quoted from two distinct places in the Catechism. 1703 was one, and 365-66 was another. So, yeah… the Catechism does make this point elsewhere.
To suggest that a Catechism is the formal vehicle for presenting a new Catholic teaching out of the blue is so foolish a notion and I am not going to dignify your throwaway comment with further response.Blackfriar: No Encyclical formally teaches what you assert.
Gorgias: Are encyclicals the only vehicle by which the Church teaches?
Psst… it’s in the paragraph that follows the one you quoted. (All emphases mine):And when you can find something to contradict the following from Donum Vitae which you ignored above do come back to us
Thus the fruit of human generation, from the first moment of its existence, that is to say from the moment the zygote has formed, demands the unconditional respect that is morally due to the human being in his bodily and spiritual totality.
The human being is to be respected and treated as a person from the moment of conception; and therefore from that same moment his rights as a person must be recognized, among which in the first place is the inviolable right of every innocent human being to life. This doctrinal reminder provides the fundamental criterion for the solution of the various problems posed by the development of the biomedical sciences in this field: since the embryo must be treated as a person, it must also be defended in its integrity, tended and cared for, to the extent possible, in the same way as any other human being