But the contract itself seems to restrict her first ammendments rights:
No, NO, and NO!!!
It is not
possible for a private contract to do that. First Amendment rights are
strictly with respect to government.
Any lawyer who tells you that a private entity can restrict first amendment rights, save for the specific case of the private entity acting on behalf of the government, so utterly misunderstands the law that he shouldn’t be practicing.
It restricts her to aligning all her comments with Catholic teachings and scripture at all times and in all circumstances.
The caselaw is overwhelming that such requirements may be made of the public life of persons in ministerial positions, including teachers.
Are you American? What you said is not right. The first ammendment prevents the government from making laws that prohibit free speech. It has nothing whatsoever to do with preventing ‘the government’ from persecuting people.
To American thinking, the government controlling speech
IS persecution . . .
Why does a non-Catholic or anti-Catholic even want access to young Catholic minds?
The answer, unfortunately, is obvious.
It is unfortunately even conceivable that this was planned before taking the job . . . it wouldn’t be the first such incident . . .
. And if a private contract denies the freedom of expression then it may well contradict the first.
Again, that is just plain not true, and contradicts all two hundred and thirty years of US constitutional law.
I’m a layman in legal matters but it would seem to me that restricting public comments by virtue of a private contract denies basic freedom of speech.
I am an attorney. Your position has no basis in the law, and directly contradicts it.
The first amendment does
not protect “freedom of speech”. Rather, it prevents the
government, and
only the government, from silencing speech.
There might be
other law that would attempt to protect speech in such a context, but that law, a government action, would violate the Free Exercise clause of the first amendment.
If the church organisation takes the matter to court (or is taken to court) then the first applies.
No. Again, you simply have no idea what the law actually provides.
Good luck in making any suggestion that contracts in law - subject to state legislation, are exempt.
I won’t need luck. The law is well settled. Enforcement of a contract is not limited in such a way.
I’m not sure whether you’re unable or unwilling to understand this basic legal concept, or are simply trolling at this point.
hawk, esq.