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Nimeniton
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What is the Catholic position on Matthew 5:32 and Matthew 19:9. Here there is an exemption “porneia” as grounds for divorce.Catechism:
“Whoever divorces his wife and marries another, commits adultery against her; and if she divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery”
The meaning of porneia in the Bible varies:
- illicit sexual intercourse
a) adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with animals etc.
b) sexual intercourse with close relatives; Lev. 18
c) sexual intercourse with a divorced man or woman; Mk. 10:11,12 - metaph. the worship of idols
a) of the defilement of idolatry, as incurred by eating the sacrifices offered to idols
blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=G4202&t=KJV
In my youth the translation from Knox’s translation of the vulgate was setting aside the matter of unfaithfulness matthew 5:32 and not for any unfaithfulness of hers Matthew 19:9.
This gives a very different interpretation of the word porneia and certainly does not give the impression of an illicit marriage.
Neither does the Douay-Rheims bible which states excepting for the cause of fornication Matthew 5:32 and except it be for fornication Matthew 19:9. Interestingly there is a note for Matthew19:9 which says [9] “Except it be”… In the case of fornication, that is, of adultery, the wife may be put away: but even then the husband cannot marry another as long as the wife is living. drbo.org/chapter/47019.htm. There are two interesting points here. He interprets** porneia** to mean adultery even though Matthew uses quite an explicit word for adultery in the same sentence moichaō. What is also interesting is his conclusion that the man can divorce under those circumstances yet not marry again. However, the verse is explicit in that the exemption is the only reason he can marry again.
The exemption seems to be very problematic to interpret. What is the current thinking as to its meaning?