SSPX: Traditionalist head says Vatican doctrinal statement needs changes

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I did not mean to suggest that you were personally an apologist for SSPX or that you are not in full agreement with Church teaching.
No worries at all. I know your comments were not directed at me.
For my part, I do not find the Vatican II documents or the Catechism to be particularly difficult or ambiguous. But I admit that many people seem to find them ambiguous.
To me that is a serious problem. Of course, the documents nor the CCC are really geared to the laity anyway.
The larger point is that I do not believe that any ambiguity is the real problem. The real problem is that the SSPX simply does not agree with the Church’s teachings in certain areas. As I have said, I believe that salvation of non-Catholics is one of them - perhaps the biggest point of disagreement. This is not an ambiguous areas of Church teachng, IMO. I would be interested to hear if you agree that this is one of the problem areas for our SSPX brethren, and if you find the Church’s teaching in that area ambiguous.
I think the OF of the Mass is the biggest issue as well as formation and catechesis but your points are probably valid also.

Peace,
 
How can a dogmatic document contain errors?
“The Second Vatican Council has not been treated as a part of the entire living Tradition of the Church, but as an end of Tradition, a new start from zero. The truth is that this particular Council defined no dogma at all, and deliberately chose to remain on a modest level, as a merely pastoral council; and yet many treat it as though it had made itself into a sort of superdogma which takes away the importance of all the rest.”
  • Then-Cardinal Ratzinger, now Pope Benedict XVI.
Please also remember, I am not SSPX, I am simply trying to explain the SSPX position against falsehoods that seem to often be present on this forum.
 
  • Then-Cardinal Ratzinger, now Pope Benedict XVI.
Please also remember, I am not SSPX, I am simply trying to explain the SSPX position against falsehoods that seem to often be present on this forum.
Excellent quote. Thanks!
 
  • Then-Cardinal Ratzinger, now Pope Benedict XVI.
That really didn’t answer the question, even if the quote is accurate. There are still two dogmatic constitutions produced by the council. How can they contain error and still be dogmatic?
 
I think the OF of the Mass is the biggest issue as well as formation and catechesis but your points are probably valid also.
I would say more specifically the English OF for three reasons: One, the Latin OF has not been challenged severely by the FSSPX. (The Roman Canon and EP1 are virtually identical in the Latin.) Two, the English translations have been the ones that are more carefully scrutinized of late. (The Spanish Mass, for example, still has the “for all” clause in it and it seems to have gone unnoticed.) Three, you yourself have brought up the fact (post #45) that the Pope has expressed more concern for the English-speaking world and its (failed?) interpretation of Church doctrine. Seems like the FSSPX aren’t the only ones who have deviated in that respect in the eyes of the Vatican.

Good points otherwise.
 
That really didn’t answer the question, even if the quote is accurate. There are still two dogmatic constitutions produced by the council. How can they contain error and still be dogmatic?
Acording to my understanding “dogmatic constitution” is simply one of 3 ways of phrasing “apostolic consitution”. The question should not be “what is the genre or category mentioned in the title” but rather, “whats in the document?” and is it (the doc) by its nature protected by the gift of indefectability?". In the case of vatican II the apostolic constitutions are called dogma because the repeat and rephrase earlier established dogmas, not because they establish dogma and therefore the phrasing and wording therein falls into the realm of prudential judgment (i.e. it can be imprudently worded, even in a way that is potentially and theoretically harmful to the church and the salvation of souls). As one example, the most recent of these types of constitutions was actually the one by our holy father explaining how to go about bringing Anglicans into the church. I could be wrong, but I don’t think that document teaches dogma in any way shape or form. In that document, a dogmatic/apostolic constitution, the pope could have legally stated (to borrow a Davies example) that the welsh rugby team is better than the English rugby team and many of the anglicans the letter refered to would have been made angry and could rightfully, under Canon 212 §3, call that statement in the dogmatic constitution “imprudent” and even “erroneous” while many welsh rugby fans might like the statement and might always make sure to stress the word dogmatic or apostolic when referring to the constitution, to discourage English rugby fans from challenging it…

Also, I’d like to point out something I saw in an earlier post (can’t remember who’s) about vatican I being no different because it too established no new dogma just pre-existing stuff. This is incorrect, but I think its because of a misunderstanding of wording. The assumption of Mary was an objective fact prior to 1950, but it was not dogma because it hadn’t been dogmatized, which is a legal term. So councils do usually establish dogma, but councils, so long as they are valid (like V2) can honestly do what they want even if it means producing official but not infallible rugby commentary. In the case of vatican 2, it is a fact that no new dogma’s were taught, no dogma was established, the only thing done was that certain dogmas were spoken about, arguably in an attempt to make them more user friendly, but since the dogmas were already established, the only thing we can debate about, regarding what was and wasn’t protected by indefectability, is the wording and the fact is, that wording felling into the prudential judgment of the “pariti” who drafted the documents and whom many council fathers admit were liberal, even modernist, and highly influenced by and sympathetic to the influence of the protestant (heretic) guests who were allowed and invited to opine on the issues (during certain portions in which wording was debated) and purposely wording things vaguely enough that both an orthodox and modernist interpretation could be arrived at. There is nothing in the teaching on the indefectability of the church that says this cannot happen at a council. All sorts of crazy stuff can and has happened at councils.

Additionally, with regard to salvation outside the church, I think the concern is that the V2 document in question phrases it in a very confusing way, specifically it says of other religions that they are “a means of salvation” and otherwise implies (keep in mind it was liberal “pariti” who chose this wording") that others can be save “by” their religion rather than “in spite of” which is arguably the more prudent way to phrase it. The reason the prudence is as huge an issue here is because this phrasing isn’t just imprudent, it is dangerous and jeopardizes the church’s primary mission, the salvation of souls.

Also, to the fellow who said, implicitly, that the SSPX is lying about their motives and it actually just plain wants to be disobedient, thats just silly. We need to take people at their word and not accuse them of lying with not evidence…
 
I would say more specifically the English OF for three reasons: One, the Latin OF has not been challenged severely by the FSSPX. (The Roman Canon and EP1 are virtually identical in the Latin.) Two, the English translations have been the ones that are more carefully scrutinized of late. (The Spanish Mass, for example, still has the “for all” clause in it and it seems to have gone unnoticed.) Three, you yourself have brought up the fact (post #45) that the Pope has expressed more concern for the English-speaking world and its (failed?) interpretation of Church doctrine. Seems like the FSSPX aren’t the only ones who have deviated in that respect in the eyes of the Vatican.

Good points otherwise.
I would disagree about the english NO vs the plain old EF argument. Even the NO in latin is still the NO and it is almost everything about the NO that they dislike. The removal of the vast majority of references to sacrifice (not just the EP) and the removal of entire prayers that stressed the sacrficial nature of the mass and the role of the priest as sacriicer (not the host of a fellowship dinner) the removal of prayers and acts that stressed our sins and the expiatory nature of the sacrifice, the removal of acts, signs and wording that stressed our belief in the real presence, etc etc. A real traditionalist who understands each of the differences between the EF and NO prayers (and the similarity between the NO missal and the anglican missals) would rather attend the EF in vietnamese than the NO in Latin…

Thats not to say the NO translations arent an issue but I disagree that it finds its way anywhere near the top of the list.
 
Correction to my post above:
In the case of vatican II the apostolic constitutions are called dogma because
When I said they are “called dogma” I meant to write “called dogmatic constitutions”. The whole point is that they are not called dogma. Sorry for the confusion.
In the case of vatican II the apostolic constitutions are called -]dogma/-] dogmatic constitutions because
 
No worries at all. I know your comments were not directed at me.

To me that is a serious problem. Of course, the documents nor the CCC are really geared to the laity anyway.

I think the OF of the Mass is the biggest issue as well as formation and catechesis but your points are probably valid also.

Peace,
I think that the OF is the most visible issue, but I tend to think that the EENS issues are actually more important, although I could be wrong.
 
  • Then-Cardinal Ratzinger, now Pope Benedict XVI.
Please also remember, I am not SSPX, I am simply trying to explain the SSPX position against falsehoods that seem to often be present on this forum.
Can you point out the falsehoods that you are alluding to? I would also note that the Pope did not say that Vatican II was not a real council or that its teachings are not true and binding.
 
I would also like to add, regarding my post #86, that it is not just traditionalists that feel this way about the wording. There is an American cardinal, a young guy, featured on real catholic tv once, who admitted that the wording was a HUGE problem and argued that a new document, a very long one, should be issued which explicitly specifies the correct and permitted interpretation of each line in the documents (or perhaps just the amiguous ones) and that that new documument should be made official teaching. There are many in the hierarchy who agree with him. Also there are some traditional theologians who have a different approach, they have drafted petitions to the pope asking him to "dangle the V2 documents above the flames of dogma (yes, that’s right, trads askin the pope to dogmatize V2) because they are confident that it will not be permitted to occur by God by the indefectability of the church.

If anyone remembers the name of the cardinal in speaking of, please post it.
 
I would also like to add, regarding my post #86, that it is not just traditionalists that feel this way about the wording. There is an American cardinal, a young guy, featured on real catholic tv once, who admitted that the wording was a HUGE problem and argued that a new document, a very long one, should be issued which explicitly specifies the correct and permitted interpretation of each line in the documents (or perhaps just the amiguous ones) and that that new documument should be made official teaching. There are many in the hierarchy who agree with him. Also there are some traditional theologians who have a different approach, they have drafted petitions to the pope asking him to "dangle the V2 documents above the flames of dogma (yes, that’s right, trads askin the pope to dogmatize V2) because they are confident that it will not be permitted to occur by God by the indefectability of the church.

If anyone remembers the name of the cardinal in speaking of, please post it.
Can you tell which particular teachings of Vatican II are ambiguous and need to be clarified? Are there particular misunderstandings among the faithful in the Church today because of these ambiguities?
 
A real traditionalist who understands each of the differences between the EF and NO prayers (and the similarity between the NO missal and the anglican missals) would rather attend the EF in vietnamese than the NO in Latin…
Fair points but a few things here.

(1) The attempt at redefinition of the Roman Missal in 1969 brought upon a lot of controversy. Yes, it was corrected but there are still some long-standing beliefs that the Mass was changed from a sacrifice to a meal-only because of that original redefinition, never mind the number of times “sacrificium” is used in the liturgy.

(2) Any translation of the Mass was seen as part of the reform of the liturgy, which incidently began as early as the late 40’s, if not earlier.

(3) Even the 1962 Missal was/is compromised in the eyes of many so-called “traditionalists.” The entire Holy Week was rewritten in 1955 and the very Latin words of the Roman Canon were altered in 1962.

(4) In the 60’s even before the FSSPX there were questions concerning the validity of the all-English canon. Omlor and others wrote papers on it if you or any one wishes to do a search on the matter.
Thats not to say the NO translations arent an issue but I disagree that it finds its way anywhere near the top of the list.
There are translations and misinterpretations of things other than the NO that seem to be heavy issues, and that seems to the point of the article jwinch2 posted.
 
Acording to my understanding “dogmatic constitution” is simply one of 3 ways of phrasing “apostolic consitution”. The question should not be “what is the genre or category mentioned in the title” but rather, “whats in the document?” and is it (the doc) by its nature protected by the gift of indefectability?". In the case of vatican II the apostolic constitutions are called dogma because the repeat and rephrase earlier established dogmas, not because they establish dogma and therefore the phrasing and wording therein falls into the realm of prudential judgment (i.e. it can be imprudently worded, even in a way that is potentially and theoretically harmful to the church and the salvation of souls).
I can understand what you are saying here. But in light of this, I do not think the word"error" can be used based on an opinion that the wording is imprudent. So why do the SSPX object if it is a question of prudence? More to the point, if it is a question of prudence, wouldn’t that be something we should be obedient in, yielding our opinion, not because we think the opinion of the Church is better, but because of the authority vested in the Church.
 
A real traditionalist who understands each of the differences between the EF and NO prayers…
I have never understood the purpose of such a phrase as “real traditionist”. It is just too much of a cliche.
 
I have never understood the purpose of such a phrase as “real traditionist”. It is just too much of a cliche.
Opinion noted, but please don’t draw too much from my usage of the word. I suppose, if I wanted to use more words to get my point across I would explain that I’m distinguishing simply between the many people who think language (latin v english, latin v korean) is the primary issue and the primary reason for the traditionalist movement and those who understand that the problems from the beginning never had nearly as much to do with language as with content. But perhaps you’re right, perhaps “real traditionalist” was poor choice of wording, however I would point out that the phrase I used should be taken in its entirety, that is that I qualified the term by saying “a real traditionalist who understands each of the differences between the EF and NO prayers (and the similarity between the NO missal and the anglican missals)” which basically means everything that I just explained in this post. Perhaps my korean studies (where modifiers come conveniently before the modified noun have made me forget that the modifier “x who y y y” easily goes unnoticed in english 🙂
 
I can understand what you are saying here. But in light of this, I do not think the word “error” can be used based on an opinion that the wording is imprudent.
I think a case can be made for the word error. But that aside, a big problem here is what is drawn from the error. Is it the case that a phrase such as “means of salvation” can and does lead many people (clergy and laity) to erroneously believe that non-catholics can be saved “by” their religion rather than “in spite of” it? Yes, I think, looking around today, it is the case. We could sit here and argue about whether thats the most logical interpretation of the text, etc, but none of that matters. The church’s primary concern is the salvation of souls and the issue today is that many of these wordings ARE contributing to modernist ideas such as religious pluralism spreading throughout the church (have you read about any religious pluralism being taught in catholic schools today? I have) and those tangible things, those things that are actually happening are the reason that this is a big deal and needs to be address.
So why do the SSPX object if it is a question of prudence?
I don’t see why prudence/imprudence should be grounds for not objecting to things. But certainly their primary motivation is that they believe it is endangering the church’s mission, the salvation of souls.
More to the point, if it is a question of prudence, wouldn’t that be something we should be obedient in, yielding our opinion, not because we think the opinion of the Church is better, but because of the authority vested in the Church?]
I think we should be cautious regarding to what degree and in what way we mix things like “authority”, "prudence"and “opinion” together because of their respective natures. Certainly, when other factors are not involved it could be argued that the smarter thing to do is err on the side of the church (i.e. the theological concensus on the Assumption prior to it being dogmatized). However when things are actually having visible, tangible negative effects on the church, on the faithful, and we think (perhaps rightly, perhaps wrongly) that the above mentioned imprudence is the (or a) cause (and we have 2,000 yrs of examples of imprudent ordinances having negative practical effects on the church), then we have, not only the right, but according to Canon law Can. 212 §3, the duty to argue against it (i.e. petition the pope, petition the bishops, get in heated debates on CAF 🙂 ).

Of course the faithful also have the right to not do so.
 
But perhaps you’re right, perhaps “real traditionalist” was poor choice of wording, however I would point out that the phrase I used should be taken in its entirety, that is that I qualified the term by saying “a real traditionalist who understands each of the differences between the EF and NO prayers (and the similarity between the NO missal and the anglican missals)” which basically means everything that I just explained in this post. Perhaps my korean studies (where modifiers come conveniently before the modified noun have made me forget that the modifier “x who y y y” easily goes unnoticed in english 🙂
Then you should know that any language that translates “tu,” “te,” “tibi,” “vos” to the same English word (“you”) or “hic,” “hoc,” “haec,” “hunc,” “huic,” “hanc,” “hac” to the same English word (“this”) or “colere” to “worship” (as in “colere Mariam”) can’t be trusted to be one of precision which defines Church doctrine or prayer.
 
More to the point, if it is a question of prudence, wouldn’t that be something we should be obedient in, yielding our opinion, not because we think the opinion of the Church is better, but…
I forgot to point out another keyword in your post that I think is important to analyze: obedient. Obedience and opinion of prudence do not go together. To give a very extreme example: i believe that those who argue for optional priestly celibacy are absolutely wrong! However provided they be obedient and practice priestly celibacy, and not teach heresy, then there is nothing legally wrong about them continuing to verbally disagree with it, because it is technically a discipline that could “theoretically” not be in place…

So with regard to opinions and whether we think non-dogmatic wording is prudent or certain ordinances are prudent, obedience is a non-issue. Put another way, it is not disobedient to obey canon law (C212.3). However, once a person drifts from differences of opinion regarding prudence and negative practical effects of things on the church, then drifts over to teaching that the Novus Ordo is invalid (sedevecantists), or that because of V2 certain popes arent actually popes (sedevecantists) etc, then you have become disobedient. Ironically, it is the SSPX which has produced some of the more aggressive arguments against such sedevecantists beliefs.

Bottom line, a common scenario these days is for people to completely stop a conversation and kill credibility by erroneously throwing out accusations about obedience. It’s a real (and wrong) show stopper use against obedient, faithful Catholics who are simply exercising the right and duty given them in canon law. I’m not saying that was your intent here, it doesn’t seem that it was, but whenever I see that word pop up in the incorrect place or otherwise be misapplied, I get a bit defensive (reasonably, I think)
 
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