SSPX

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That’s a good point. Maybe we could chip in and send the mods some monk beer or some of the monastery coffee or something. 😃

-Tim-
I could go for a fine monk brew myself to be honest. Although, I am happy to share with the moderators if they find themselves to be a bit parched… 😉
 
Not so much.
I answer that, Some have contended that heretics, schismatics, and the excommunicate, who are outside the pale of the Church, cannot perform this sacrament. But herein they are deceived, because, as Augustine says (Contra Parmen. ii), “it is one thing to lack something utterly, and another to have it improperly”; and in like fashion, “it is one thing not to bestow, and quite another to bestow, but not rightly.” Accordingly, such as, being within the Church, received the power of consecrating the Eucharist through being ordained to the priesthood, have such power rightly indeed; but they use it improperly if afterwards they be separated from the Church by heresy, schism, or excommunication. But such as are ordained while separated from the Church, have neither the power rightly, nor do they use it rightly. But that in both cases they have the power, is clear from what Augustine says (Contra Parmen. ii), that when they return to the unity of the Church, they are not re-ordained, but are received in their orders. And since the consecration of the Eucharist is an act which follows the power of order, such persons as are separated from the Church by heresy, schism, or excommunication, can indeed consecrate the Eucharist, which on being consecrated by them contains Christ’s true body and blood; but they act wrongly, and sin by doing so; and in consequence they do not receive the fruit of the sacrifice, which is a spiritual sacrifice.
So the personal beliefs of the minister cannot possibly, of itself, invalidate the Mass; if so, Saint Thomas could not say that heretics and the excommunicated could confect the Sacrament, because we could not be sure what their heresy consisted of: e.g., a denial of transubstantion or the real presence? Now what finally does certainly invalidate a rite is to butcher the matter or form. Therefore, “spiritual satisfaction” is irrelevant and would not, of itself, invalidate a Mass.
 
I believe that Melchior, Jwinch and Br.David had hit the nail on the head that many people are missing.

The Holy Father said that religious priests can use the EF in private without having to ask for permission.

However, he did not say, “Religious priests can celebrate private masses without permission.”

In some orders, that decision is reserved for the superior of the house. As I said above, the pope would have to go into everyone of those constitutions and rules and amend them one by one, because either he or his predecessor signed off on them. He cannot amend then without his signature. They would have no legal force.

Since that has not happened, superiors in some communities still have the authority to deny permission for private masses. A bishop does not have that authority, because his men are not consecrated to obey him in this way.

Fraternally,

Br. JR, OSF 🙂
OK, so if I understand, a superior can prohibit private Masses, but where private Masses are allowed, a religious priest can say the EF. Is that correct?
 
Brother, JR, quick question. Can a superior prohibit private masses for his house even if the constitutions of his order allow private masses?
  • PAX
 
I answer that, Some have contended that heretics, schismatics, and the excommunicate, who are outside the pale of the Church, cannot perform this sacrament. But herein they are deceived, because, as Augustine says (Contra Parmen. ii), “it is one thing to lack something utterly, and another to have it improperly”; and in like fashion, “it is one thing not to bestow, and quite another to bestow, but not rightly.” Accordingly, such as, being within the Church, received the power of consecrating the Eucharist through being ordained to the priesthood, have such power rightly indeed; but they use it improperly if afterwards they be separated from the Church by heresy, schism, or excommunication. But such as are ordained while separated from the Church, have neither the power rightly, nor do they use it rightly. But that in both cases they have the power, is clear from what Augustine says (Contra Parmen. ii), that when they return to the unity of the Church, they are not re-ordained, but are received in their orders. And since the consecration of the Eucharist is an act which follows the power of order, such persons as are separated from the Church by heresy, schism, or excommunication, can indeed consecrate the Eucharist, which on being consecrated by them contains Christ’s true body and blood; but they act wrongly, and sin by doing so; and in consequence they do not receive the fruit of the sacrifice, which is a spiritual sacrifice.
So the personal beliefs of the minister cannot possibly, of itself, invalidate the Mass; if so, Saint Thomas could not say that heretics and the excommunicated could confect the Sacrament, because we could not be sure what their heresy consisted of: e.g., a denial of transubstantion or the real presence? Now what finally does certainly invalidate a rite is to butcher the matter or form. Therefore, “spiritual satisfaction” is irrelevant and would not, of itself, invalidate a Mass.
I agree that the ability to consecrate is there regardless of one’s personal opinion on the form of the Mass. From what Brother JR posted, it was the intent which was under question and whether or not a priest can be ordered to perform an extraordinary act. I’m sure that he will come and set things straight if I am not explaining that properly.

Nice use of Aquinas though… 🙂
 
No my friend, you have not proven it. I’m holding the Modus Procedendi. I’ll paraphrase it, because it’s very long. In accord with tradition, a bishop or a superior can assign any validly ordained priest to celebrate the sacraments. That priest has the duty to comply, if the assignment is reasonable and in accordance with the law and his assignment. And then it goes on and on about what is and is not reasonable. It is inconsistent with tradition to mandate a priest to celebrate the sacraments. Then it goes on and on to say how every priest should be eager to celebrate the sacraments.

The constitutions of my community say: “While the superior has the authority to withhold permission to celebrate mass, from any cleric, for just cause [it leaves it up to the superior to define just cause], he does not have the authority to command a cleric to celebrate the mass. The celebration of the sacred mysteries must be freely undertaken by the cleric.”

The Church does not give us the authority to make such commands. We can assign, but we cannot demand.

Fraternally,

Br. JR, FFV 🙂
So how is any priest obliged to say the Mass? Now naturally you cannot physically force a priest to say Mass, but I do not think that means you can’t punish them for refusing their obligation, when it exists. Now in order to punish one requires a law that, being trespassed, assigns punishments: are you telling me there simply exists no such law? If so, and if say a parish priest refused to do his duty or say Mass, how do his superiors go about replacing him, or does the priest enjoy squatters rights, as it were, and the faithful are simply to accept that they have no sacraments?

And I agree, priests should be eager to say the Mass and celebrate the sacraments; we have reason to be worried if they are not; nonetheless, I do not think that fulfilling the obligation for the sake of duty would or could invalidate a sacrament, even if being done reluctantly, otherwise the Masses of all occult heretics would be invalid, and we could never know for certainty if we were unwittingly participating in idolatry. Intention consists in doing what the Church does, and saying Mass according to the Catholic Rite would certainly be doing what the Church does when she says Mass.
 
I agree that the ability to consecrate is there regardless of one’s personal opinion on the form of the Mass. From what Brother JR posted, it was the intent which was under question and whether or not a priest can be ordered to perform an extraordinary act. I’m sure that he will come and set things straight if I am not explaining that properly.
Do you really need JR to tell you the dangerous implications of resting the validity of a sacrament on someone’s personal opinion? What are the personal opinions of heretics as regards the sacraments or the Most Holy Trinity? Nonetheless, we know that - so long as they use the correct matter and form, even they can and do baptize. The intention, when defective, is exposed by mutalating or otherwise bastardising the rite. I think the intention to do what the Church does is normally satisfied simply by actually doing what the Church does; otherwise, we would perpetually labour under doubt of the validity of all the sacraments we have received, including our baptism.

Be assured, the Church has had many periods in history where the faithful had good reason to suspect that the clergy might have imbibed some popular heresy that causes in them some detestation of the sacraments in general or the Mass specifically; nonetheless, we have never heard this being sufficient grounds for doubting the validity of sacraments: not, at least, until it became manifest and the sacraments themselves were being perverted or held in contempt. Such suspicion would cause anarchy because, as I have said, we cannot read men’s minds or hearts, but are obliged to base our judgement upon what is before us. Now if it is evident that the person before us is a priest and he is saying Mass according to the Catholic form, what reason do I have to suspect he hasn’t the intention of doing what the Church does, seeing as he is actually doing exactly what the Church does in celebrating the Mass? The evidence before me says the priest has the necessary intention.
 
OK, so if I understand, a superior can prohibit private Masses, but where private Masses are allowed, a religious priest can say the EF. Is that correct?
That’s right.
Brother, JR, quick question. Can a superior prohibit private masses for his house even if the constitutions of his order allow private masses?
  • PAX
It depends ow the constitutions are worded. Let me just give you two different possible wordings.
  1. Clerics are allowed to celebrate mass in private.
  2. Clerics may celebrate the mass in private, provided that such practice does not separate them from the community.
In No. 1, there are no conditions. There would be nothing for the superior to object.

In No. 2, there is a condition. Even though it’s ambiguous, because it does not define what separates the individual from the community, the superior can make that judgment call.

As happens in any case where a bishop or a religious superior makes a judgement call, the individual has the right to appeal, precisely because the law is vague. An arbitrator would help to determine if the judgment call is falls under what has intended by the law.

To answer you question in your previous post, “So is any priest obliged to say mass?”

That is one of the most complex questions. If you look at Canon Law under Eucharist and under Holy Orders, there are all kinds of rules for when to celebrate the Eucharist, who may celebrate it, who may be ordained, etc etc.

There is not single mention of the obligation to celebrate mass.

I’m not a canon lawyer. I’m going to guess that the writers of the law saw this as a point of spirituality rather than a point of law.

If one looks at the Sacrament of Penance, the priest must hear your confession, within reason. The law specifically says that he has to make every effort to hear your confession. There is no such statement concerning the mass.

The only thing that could apply is that the faithful have a right to the sacraments and if you’re the only priest available, then it falls on you to provide for the faithful.

Just for the sake of conversation, I guess if a priest is a professor at a university, he is not responsible for the faithful at the university. there does not seem to be a law that says that he must celebrate the mass at least once a week.

I remember hearing that there was a law that a priest had to celebrate Sundays and Solemnities. But I can’t find it in Canon Law. It may be in some other book or it may have been the code of 1917. When I went to school that was the code in place. I truly don’t remember where I heard that.

The thought has never even entered my mind. I’ve never met a priest that lazy. I know priests who are not in parishes who don’t celebrate every day, but they celebrate several times a week, even if alone. I have never met one who never celebrates of his own volition. Good question. Does he have to say mass, if he does not have a parish? Basically, that would be the question.

I know that if you have mass intentions, you must fulfill them. That’s a big big deal. If you don’t, then what is the rule? I have no idea.

Fraternally,

Br. JR, FFV 🙂
 
I was just thinking - every one of the SSPX Rosary Crusades have come to fruition - first was making the Latin Mass more available. Then it happened. Next was the lifting of the excommunications. It happened. I was hoping that their next one would be for full reconciliation with the Church - but, they chose to focus on the Consecration of Russia instead…
 
Do you really need JR to tell you the dangerous implications of resting the validity of a sacrament on someone’s personal opinion?
You might want to read what I wrote again. I just got done saying that personal opinion did not invalidate the sacraments.
What are the personal opinions of heretics as regards the sacraments or the Most Holy Trinity? Nonetheless, we know that - so long as they use the correct matter and form, even they can and do baptize. The intention, when defective, is exposed by mutalating or otherwise bastardising the rite. I think the intention to do what the Church does is normally satisfied simply by actually doing what the Church does; otherwise, we would perpetually labour under doubt of the validity of all the sacraments we have received, including our baptism.
Three things: 1) I do not base my understanding of the sacraments on what you think. I base them on what the Church says. I am also willing to listen to what people who have been formally trained by the Church have to say on the matter. 2) Baptism is a really poor example to choose. A Methodist pastor can validly baptize without the reception of valid Holy Orders. They cannot consecrate the Eucharist. 3) Going through the motions per the rubrics provided by the Church does not equal intent. If I go to confession and do and say all the proper things was the sacrament valid? Are my sins absolved? Now take the same scenario without conscious intent on my part to abstain from sin in the future.
The evidence before me says the priest has the necessary intention.
Earlier you stated that we needed documentation from the Vatican. Now you say, we have enough evidence. This, despite the fact that someone reading the Modus Procedendi while writing this response and who has been trained in Canon Law, has told you that you are wrong. Well maybe you have enough evidence, but I don’t since it seems to be based largely on your own opinion. So, you can either drop it, or follow your own advice and go find contrary evidence and present it. If you decide on option two I hope you enjoy Canon Law and Theology, I hear the courses can be challenging. Also when you get back, please start another thread so that we can actually discuss the potential reunion of SSPX which is what *this *thread is supposed to be about.
 
I was just thinking - every one of the SSPX Rosary Crusades have come to fruition - first was making the Latin Mass more available. Then it happened. Next was the lifting of the excommunications. It happened. I was hoping that their next one would be for full reconciliation with the Church - but, they chose to focus on the Consecration of Russia instead…
Interesting, I did not know that. I guess you could look at it as they were praying for others instead of themselves, but I understand where you are coming from.

Peace,
 
I do want this thread to stay on topic…
Should we know, with a definite answer by Friday, from the Vatican?
 
I do want this thread to stay on topic…
Should we know, with a definite answer by Friday, from the Vatican?
Even if we were to know today, whatever structure they decide on, if any, may not effective for several months if not longer IMO.
 
Why sad? Just because I haven’t seen it doesn’t mean it hasn’t happened. There are many who are far, far closer to the SSPX situation than I am. Hopefully some of them will chime in and let us know if they have seen anything remotely official regarding a timeline.

Peace,
 
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