B
bugz2007
Guest
I asked this question in another poster’s thread, but I feel as if my hijacking of that thread may have left my questions to get lost in the shuffle.
I wanted to ask if it is “wrong” to enter into a marriage when it is a possibility that sexual dysfunction may be a reality of the marriage due to an individuals past experiences with sexual-type abuse? And if, once in the marriage, it did turn out to be a reality, would it be wrong to stay in the marriage, even without evidence that the condition would be a permanent one?
I wanted to ask if it is “wrong” to enter into a marriage when it is a possibility that sexual dysfunction may be a reality of the marriage due to an individuals past experiences with sexual-type abuse? And if, once in the marriage, it did turn out to be a reality, would it be wrong to stay in the marriage, even without evidence that the condition would be a permanent one?