Famdigy, is it true that you don’t have hadith to base this practice on?
did Muhammad allow it at some time or other?
why does the Quranic verse use the word " enjoy" about marriage?
InJESUS, there are numerous hadiths that allow temporary marriage, below are a few.
Tahdhib ul-ahkaam vol.7 page 250 hadith #4
al-istibsar vol.3 page 141 hadith #1
Wasa’il ul-shia vol.21 page 5 hadith #26356
Narrated Abi Basir: I asked Imam Ja’far al-sadiq (a) about temporary marriage (Mut’ah) he answered it has been revealed in the Qur’an “So for whatever you have had of pleasure (Istamta’tum) with them give them their required due…”
Wasa’il ul-shia vol.21 page 7 hadith #26361
Narrated Abdulrahman bin abu abdallah: I heard abu hanifah (one of the 4 sunni imams) ask Imam Ja’far al-sadiq (a) about Mut’ah, Imam Ja’far (a) asked which of the two mut’ah do you ask about? Abu hanifah said “I asked about Mut’ah of hajj but do inform me about Mut’ah of women (temporary marriage) is it permissible?” Imam Ja’far answered did you not read the verse in the Qur’an “So for whatever you have had of pleasure (Istamta’tum) with them give them their required due…”
Wasa’il ul-shia Vol.14 page 452
Imam al-Rida (a) was asked: ‘Is it possible for a man to conclude a temporary marriage with a Jew or a Christian?’ He answered: 'I would prefer that he engage in mut’a with a free Muslim woman.
Man La yahthuruhu alfaqih Vol.3 page 461
Imam Sadiq (a) said: the virgin whose father is alive should not contract a temporary marriage without her father’s permission.
The shia view is that Muhammad (s) allowed it through out his entire life. On the other hand, if you study the sunni hadiths on the prohibition of Mut’ah you’d find a lot of discrepancies.
1st: the sunni hadiths report that Muhammad (s) prohibited temporary marriage forever in the 8th year After the Hijrah (migration from makkah to madina)
Yet in another sunni hadith it is reported that the messenger (s) allowed temporary marriage in the 9th year after the Hijrah for a period of 3 days before making declaring it illegal.
The question begs why has it been allowed after it had been disallowed only to be disallowed again?
2nd: Durring the khalifat of Umar the 2nd khalif in Islam, it is reported he prohibited temporary marriage in the following words
“Two Mut’a were practiced during the time of the Prophet: Mut’a of women and Mut’a of Hajj, but I forbid both of them and will punish anyone who practices either.” Umar’s words demonstrate that during the lifetime of the prophet (s) temporary marriage was permitted. He attributes the prohibition of temporary marriage to himself and not to the prophet.
3rd: Many of the companions practiced temporary marriage during the messenger’s (s) and lifetime and the lifetime of the 1st khalif Abu Bakr. At the very least we know there was a difference of opinion among the companions, some of them attributing the prohibition to Umar and continued to practice it.
You asked why does the Quran use the word enjoy about marriage. The word used in the Qur’an is “istamta’tum” “you enjoyed”, the root word of that is “Mut’ah” “enjoyment”, when this word is used in conjunction with women i.e. Mut’ah of women, it is understood to mean enjoyment marriage or temporary marriage (Nikah Mut’ah). This was indeed the understanding of many of the early companions such as Ibn Abbas and the reason why some of the sunni commentators agree that this verse was revealed about temporary marriage.