Temporary marriage : do Shia still practice it?

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Sexual deviancy is a big problem in the Muslim world, especially with the younger crowd. In Saudi Arabia for instance homosexuality is on the rise
Source: associatedcontent.com/article/225905/homosexuality_on_the_rise_in_saudi.html

The cause of this deviancy is the suppression of human nature. Single people in the kingdom who can’t get married and have no access to the members of the opposite sex are rebelling. This is not exclusive to Muslims. The Christian sexual morality also had its share of sexual deviancy.
You are correct but sexual deviancy has nothing to do with a lack of access to the opposite sex. Actually you refute your very own point above. You claim a lack of access to the opposite sex causes sexual deviancy in the Muslim world and also claim deviancy in the Christian world where there is unlimited access to the opposite sex. Do you see your error?

What causes the deviancy, in both cultures, is a lack of respect for ourselves and, more importantly, God. That’s it, plain and simple. If I love God I respect women. If I love myself I respect my body.
This is an on-going issue, and the catholic church is still plagued by the sexual abuse cases launched against it for which it paid out $2.3 Billion to date. The question begs why is there an epidemic of sexual abuse within Christianity and specifically the roman catholic church? Could it be a consequence of an unnatural sexual morality?
You hit the nail on the head. Unnatural sexual morality.
Temporary marriage is a solution for muslims
Maybe the catholic church should take your solution? Would you have priests make temporary contracts to have sex? Is that really a solution?
 
You learn something new every day…I always thought Muslims were so chaste and only had sex within a life-long marriage, I mean…an hour…2 hours…3 months…that’s not ‘marriage’, that is prostitution, especially if the woman gets paid. How degrading!

Anna x
Anna…this is not practiced among the entire Muslim world. Only a small number of the Shia.
 
Some Shi’a (not all) do still practice it.

There are many Ahadith from several narrators (including Ali ibn Abi Talib) reporting that after Khaibar Muhammad (pbuh) forbade temporary marriage forever; which is why Sunni Muslims consider it fornication.
Thanks for these very informative posts. What is the Sunni explanation for Muhammad’s earlier allowance of the practice?

Edwin
 
Famdigy, is it true that you don’t have hadith to base this practice on?

did Muhammad allow it at some time or other?

why does the Quranic verse use the word " enjoy" about marriage?
 
Greetings Edwin.

The Sunni explanation is that at the time it simply hadn’t been made unlawful yet. Temporary marriage wasn’t something that came with Islam, it was accepted practice in pre-Islamic Arabian society that married men travelling away from their wives for long periods of time may make a temporary ‘contract’ with a local woman and sleep with her until he went back home.

Now, when Islam was brought to the Hijaz through Muhammad (pbuh) to reform this society it did so as a gradual process over 23 years, since trying to turn the entire people from the current situation into fully practicing Muslims overnight would be totally impractical. The sanctity of marriage is one of many things which was gradually introduced by first forbidding incest, beastality, homosexuality and other clear perversions, and then forbidding extra-marital relations; afterwards things originally considered acceptable were forbidden, first pre-marital sex, and then temporary marriages.

Another very similar example of this is alcohol; which all Muslims agree is forbidden and was accepted in pre-Islamic Arabia. Alcohol wasn’t forbidden immediately either. First the Qur’an says there is both sin and benefit in it, but the sin is greater; then in a verse revealed later it forbids Muslims from praying while under the influence of alcohol; then it forbids alcohol completely.
 
Greetings Edwin.

The Sunni explanation is that at the time it simply hadn’t been made unlawful yet. Temporary marriage wasn’t something that came with Islam, it was accepted practice in pre-Islamic Arabian society that married men travelling away from their wives for long periods of time may make a temporary ‘contract’ with a local woman and sleep with her until he went back home.

Now, when Islam was brought to the Hijaz through Muhammad (pbuh) to reform this society it did so as a gradual process over 23 years, since trying to turn the entire people from the current situation into fully practicing Muslims overnight would be totally impractical. The sanctity of marriage is one of many things which was gradually introduced by first forbidding incest, beastality, homosexuality and other clear perversions, and then forbidding extra-marital relations; afterwards things originally considered acceptable were forbidden, first pre-marital sex, and then temporary marriages.

Another very similar example of this is alcohol; which all Muslims agree is forbidden and was accepted in pre-Islamic Arabia. Alcohol wasn’t forbidden immediately either. First the Qur’an says there is both sin and benefit in it, but the sin is greater; then in a verse revealed later it forbids Muslims from praying while under the influence of alcohol; then it forbids alcohol completely.
That is certainly one of the most well thought out and well presented explanations on Quranic teachings I’ve ever read!

Where have you been Kadaveri?😃
 
It’s funny to see some people condemn temporary marriage while living in a society where pre-marital sex is the norm. It seems that society has already chosen its solution to the sexual problem but can this be justified by Christianity? Where in the teaching of Christ does it say you can have sex outside of marriage?

The truth however is that many western women are open to this idea when prospected for temporary marriage because unlike prostitution temporary marriage is not necessarily a sexual relation, and it could be for many other reasons. Muslim men and women are not allowed to intermix with the other gender especially in private settings so if two people want to get to know each other, hang out and do activities as a couple they can’t unless they are married. That has been my personal experience.

I met my wife through a mutual friend, she was a roman catholic, her parents were especially devout catholics (Eastern Europeans from the older generation). We found that we had a lot in common and enjoyed each other’s company, when I felt the relationship was starting to resemble dating I told her that I enjoy her company but as a practicing Muslim I’m not allowed to date. I explained temporary marriage to her as a form of Islamic dating and she agreed. We initially contracted a marriage for 3 months, and then extended it several times. During this time she converted to Islam and we converted the temporary marriage to a permanent one, we’re expecting our first child very soon and her family still doesn’t know she converted.
 
It’s funny to see some people condemn temporary marriage while living in a society where pre-marital sex is the norm. It seems that society has already chosen its solution to the sexual problem but can this be justified by Christianity? Where in the teaching of Christ does it say you can have sex outside of marriage?
I fail to see the humor. How does my living in a society endear me to its ways? Catholic teaching is that sex outside of marriage is fornication. That’s exactly what it is.

Using your above statement I can say that since Muslim’s committed the 9-11 attacks then all Muslims are terrorists.
During this time she converted to Islam and we converted the temporary marriage to a permanent one, we’re expecting our first child very soon and her family still doesn’t know she converted.
Is this how you and she respect her parents? Are you proud of this fact? Would you treat your parents in this fashion? Is it Islamic to lie to parents?

Why don’t you ask your new wife if she minds if you have another temporary marriage? See how quickly she runs back home.
 
Is this how you and she respect her parents? Are you proud of this fact? Would you treat your parents in this fashion? Is it Islamic to lie to parents?

Why don’t you ask your new wife if she minds if you have another temporary marriage? See how quickly she runs back home.
ref, we respect her parents but at this point it would be devastating for them if she told them she converted. The fact she married a muslim was a big deal already.

I don’t need to have a second marriage, I’m quiet happy with the one I have now, most women Muslims included don’t like the idea of their husbands marrying a second or third wife (temporary or permanent)
 
Famdigy, is it true that you don’t have hadith to base this practice on?
did Muhammad allow it at some time or other?
why does the Quranic verse use the word " enjoy" about marriage?
InJESUS, there are numerous hadiths that allow temporary marriage, below are a few.

Tahdhib ul-ahkaam vol.7 page 250 hadith #4
al-istibsar vol.3 page 141 hadith #1
Wasa’il ul-shia vol.21 page 5 hadith #26356

Narrated Abi Basir: I asked Imam Ja’far al-sadiq (a) about temporary marriage (Mut’ah) he answered it has been revealed in the Qur’an “So for whatever you have had of pleasure (Istamta’tum) with them give them their required due…”

Wasa’il ul-shia vol.21 page 7 hadith #26361
Narrated Abdulrahman bin abu abdallah: I heard abu hanifah (one of the 4 sunni imams) ask Imam Ja’far al-sadiq (a) about Mut’ah, Imam Ja’far (a) asked which of the two mut’ah do you ask about? Abu hanifah said “I asked about Mut’ah of hajj but do inform me about Mut’ah of women (temporary marriage) is it permissible?” Imam Ja’far answered did you not read the verse in the Qur’an “So for whatever you have had of pleasure (Istamta’tum) with them give them their required due…”

Wasa’il ul-shia Vol.14 page 452
Imam al-Rida (a) was asked: ‘Is it possible for a man to conclude a temporary marriage with a Jew or a Christian?’ He answered: 'I would prefer that he engage in mut’a with a free Muslim woman.

Man La yahthuruhu alfaqih Vol.3 page 461
Imam Sadiq (a) said: the virgin whose father is alive should not contract a temporary marriage without her father’s permission.

The shia view is that Muhammad (s) allowed it through out his entire life. On the other hand, if you study the sunni hadiths on the prohibition of Mut’ah you’d find a lot of discrepancies.

1st: the sunni hadiths report that Muhammad (s) prohibited temporary marriage forever in the 8th year After the Hijrah (migration from makkah to madina)
Yet in another sunni hadith it is reported that the messenger (s) allowed temporary marriage in the 9th year after the Hijrah for a period of 3 days before making declaring it illegal.
The question begs why has it been allowed after it had been disallowed only to be disallowed again?

2nd: Durring the khalifat of Umar the 2nd khalif in Islam, it is reported he prohibited temporary marriage in the following words
“Two Mut’a were practiced during the time of the Prophet: Mut’a of women and Mut’a of Hajj, but I forbid both of them and will punish anyone who practices either.” Umar’s words demonstrate that during the lifetime of the prophet (s) temporary marriage was permitted. He attributes the prohibition of temporary marriage to himself and not to the prophet.

3rd: Many of the companions practiced temporary marriage during the messenger’s (s) and lifetime and the lifetime of the 1st khalif Abu Bakr. At the very least we know there was a difference of opinion among the companions, some of them attributing the prohibition to Umar and continued to practice it.

You asked why does the Quran use the word enjoy about marriage. The word used in the Qur’an is “istamta’tum” “you enjoyed”, the root word of that is “Mut’ah” “enjoyment”, when this word is used in conjunction with women i.e. Mut’ah of women, it is understood to mean enjoyment marriage or temporary marriage (Nikah Mut’ah). This was indeed the understanding of many of the early companions such as Ibn Abbas and the reason why some of the sunni commentators agree that this verse was revealed about temporary marriage.
 
It’s funny to see some people condemn temporary marriage while living in a society where pre-marital sex is the norm…
Dear famdigy,

Firstly, certainly in a Christian sense, a temporary marriage is a contradiction. Marriage is supposed to be permanent.

Secondly, “living in a society” is not be confused to religious teachings.

You see, famdigy, in our part of the world, following a religion is a matter of your free will, which is something that Islamic communities don’t know about. In our part of the world, you are allowed to live in society and not be religious.

The heart of the issue here is not prostitution, or fornication, or divorce, or promiscuity

The heart of this issue is a religious organisation being a witness to the sanctity of marriage; And I don’t think the Shia are being a good religious witness - the Shia, by condoning temporary marriages, are proving to be an irresponsible religious organisation.
 
"Famdigy:
Tahdhib ul-ahkaam vol.7 page 250 hadith #4
al-istibsar vol.3 page 141 hadith #1
Wasa’il ul-shia vol.21 page 5 hadith #26356

Narrated Abi Basir: **I asked Imam Ja’far al-sadiq **(a) about temporary marriage (Mut’ah) he answered it has been revealed in the Qur’an “So for whatever you have had of pleasure (Istamta’tum) with them give them their required due…”

Wasa’il ul-shia vol.21 page 7 hadith #26361
Narrated Abdulrahman bin abu abdallah: I heard abu hanifah (one of the 4 sunni imams) **ask Imam Ja’far al-sadiq **(a) about Mut’ah, Imam Ja’far (a) asked which of the two mut’ah do you ask about? Abu hanifah said “I asked about Mut’ah of hajj but do inform me about Mut’ah of women (temporary marriage) is it permissible?” Imam Ja’far answered did you not read the verse in the Qur’an “So for whatever you have had of pleasure (Istamta’tum) with them give them their required due…”
do Sunni consider these hadith corrupt or are they part of the Sunni tradition as well?
 
It’s funny to see some people condemn temporary marriage while living in a society where pre-marital sex is the norm. It seems that society has already chosen its solution to the sexual problem but can this be justified by Christianity? Where in the teaching of Christ does it say you can have sex outside of marriage?

The truth however is that many western women are open to this idea when prospected for temporary marriage because unlike prostitution temporary marriage is not necessarily a sexual relation, and it could be for many other reasons. Muslim men and women are not allowed to intermix with the other gender especially in private settings so if two people want to get to know each other, hang out and do activities as a couple they can’t unless they are married. That has been my personal experience.

I met my wife through a mutual friend, she was a roman catholic, her parents were especially devout catholics (Eastern Europeans from the older generation). We found that we had a lot in common and enjoyed each other’s company, when I felt the relationship was starting to resemble dating I told her that I enjoy her company but as a practicing Muslim I’m not allowed to date. I explained temporary marriage to her as a form of Islamic dating and she agreed. We initially contracted a marriage for 3 months, and then extended it several times. During this time she converted to Islam and we converted the temporary marriage to a permanent one, we’re expecting our first child very soon and her family still doesn’t know she converted.
"
Famdigy, did you warn your wife before she became a Muslim of what could happen to her if she ever decided to renounce Islam? What about when her family finds out that her life could be in peril because of it???

Vickie
 
I think i\m getting things better now. So actually Shia and Sunni have different tradition in which the ahl al beit (Muhammad’s family) have different teachings than Muhammad’s companions.

Famdigy, your link says:
‘Lawful for you is what is beyond all that.’ In other words, any woman not belonging to one of the fifteen categories is permitted, whether by marriage or ownership.
does it mean you can have a sexual relation with a woman without marrying her because you own her as a slave?

and :
Many sayings have been related from the Companions of the Prophet and those who followed them (al-taibi’un) confirming the Shi’i view that verse 24 of this chapter concerns mut 'a. Several of the companions, including Ibn 'Abbas, the ancestor of the 'Abbasid caliphs, Ibn Mas’ud, one of the first to accept Islam, and Ubayy b. Ka’b, one of the scribes of the revelation, **hold that three words have been dropped form this passage in the Qur’an **and that the original version read: ‘So those of them whom you enjoy to a specified term (ila ajal musamma).’ This clearly indicates that the verse refers to mut’a. For example, it has been related that Ibn 'Abbas was asked about mut’a. He answered: ‘Have you not read the sura “Women” (4).’ His questioner replied: ‘Of course I have.’ He said: 'Did you not read: “So those of them whom you enjoy to a specified term. …” , He answered: ‘I did not read the verse like that.’ Ibn 'Abbas then said: ‘I swear by God, this is how God revealed it’, and he repeated this statement twice
do Shia believe 3 words were dropped from the Quran? are they added in your Quran or you have the exact same Quran but believe this verse is incomplete?
Some of the Companions complained about their long separation from their wives, and the Prophet replied: ‘Then go and enjoy (istimta’) these women.’ [6]
so Muhammad himself allowed it. How do Sunni explain it that he later forbade it? do they believe he was not inspired by Allah when he allowed it? or it was revealed by Allah but abrogated later? and as your link says, a verse which abrogates another verse must be revealed after it, not before it so what is their response?

i find these interesting:
How is it possible for the Prophet to have forbidden mut’a, yet, during the rest of his life, the period of Abu Bakr’s caliphate and the beginning of 'Umar’s caliphate, for prohibition to have remained unknown to everyone but 'Umar? Moreover, if his prohibition were based upon the words of the Prophet, why did he not attribute it to him instead of to himself?
In addition, if it is an authentic hadith, it is strange that it remained unknown to such important Companions as Ibn 'Abbas, Ibn Mas’ud, and Jabir b. 'Abd Allah. How is it possible for the hadith to be authentic, while Abu Bakr did not forbid mut’a during the whole period of his caliphate and 'Umar only banned it towards the end of his own?
what does this mean?
Shi’i authors also point out that 'Umar banned the two kinds of muta together, whereas everyone-Sunnis and Shi’is-agree that the hajj al-mut’a is permissible. Hence the muta pertaining to women should also be permissible
Sunni scholar al-Suyuti in this form: 'God have mercy on 'Umar! Mut’a was naught but a mercy from God, through which He showed mercy to Muhammad’s community. If 'Umar had not banned it, no one would need fornication except the wretched.
so not all Sunni agree on this matter.
 
I think i\m getting things better now. So actually Shia and Sunni have different tradition in which the ahl al beit (Muhammad’s family) have different teachings than Muhammad’s companions.
Yes InJesus, the Ahl al-bayt have different teachings than the companions, sunnis disagree but how would they know what the ahlulbayt truly teach if their early scholars did not transmit anything from them. A good example is Imam Ja’far al-sadiq, the 4th grandson of the prophet who opened the first Islamic university out of which more than 4000 scholars graduated. The sunni hadith scholar Imam Bukhari was a contemporary of Al-sadiq yet he didn’t record a single hadith from him.
‘Lawful for you is what is beyond all that.’ In other words, any woman not belonging to one of the fifteen categories is permitted, whether by marriage or ownership.
The quote above doesn’t mean you can have sexual relations with a slave outside of marriage, it is reffering the women who are permissible for marriage. The first are the free women whome muslims can marry the second are the (muhsanaat) these are women who are already married but have been captured as prisoners of war after the conclusion of battles with the unbelievers of arabia. If they are not taken back by their husbands through paying the ransom or negotiation they are lawful as wives even though their previous marriage has not been formally disolved provided the woman becomes muslim
Many sayings have been related from the Companions of the Prophet and those who followed them (al-taibi’un) confirming the Shi’i view that verse 24 of this chapter concerns mut 'a. Several of the companions, including Ibn 'Abbas, the ancestor of the 'Abbasid caliphs, Ibn Mas’ud, one of the first to accept Islam, and Ubayy b. Ka’b, one of the scribes of the revelation, hold that three words have been dropped form this passage in the Qur’an and that the original version read: ‘So those of them whom you enjoy to a specified term (ila ajal musamma).’ This clearly indicates that the verse refers to mut’a. For example, it has been related that Ibn 'Abbas was asked about mut’a. He answered: ‘Have you not read the sura “Women” (4).’ His questioner replied: ‘Of course I have.’ He said: 'Did you not read: “So those of them whom you enjoy to a specified term. …” , He answered: ‘I did not read the verse like that.’ Ibn 'Abbas then said: ‘I swear by God, this is how God revealed it’, and he repeated this statement twice
No Muslim (sunni or shia) believe the Quranic text has been altered or changed in any way. The sunni view of ibn Abbas’s comment is that he is reffering to an interpretative reading and not the textual integrity, The verse is revealed about temporary marriage and should be read and understood as a fixed term enjoyment marriage. (Fiqh al-sunnah vol.2 page 45)

It’s a common nomenclature by the early scholars to refer to both the text of the Quran and its interpretation as Quran. Shaikh Mufid the shia scholar in his book Al-masa’il al-sarawiyah asserts that the text of the Quran and its interpretation are collectivly called Qur’an, a few chapters later in a similar fashion to ibn Abbas, he reports that some verses have been alterered but these are alterations in the interpretation of the verses in the Quran not the textual integrity. The prophet (s) is reported to have said to Ali (a) that he will fight for its (Qur’an’s) interpretation just as the messenger had fought for its (Qur’an’s) revelation. (al-Mustadrak, by al-Hakim, v3, p122) That is to say just as unbelievers were active in preventing the revelation thereby stopping islam from the outside, thre will be a group active in preventing the correct interpretation of the Quran attempting to stop islam from witin the muslim ranks.
 
so Muhammad himself allowed it. How do Sunni explain it that he later forbade it? do they believe he was not inspired by Allah when he allowed it? or it was revealed by Allah but abrogated later? and as your link says, a verse which abrogates another verse must be revealed after it, not before it so what is their response?
thats a troublesome predicament, some avoid the entire debate by claiming that the verse was never revealed about temporary marriage and that it was a pre-islamic custom like drinking alcohol which was eventually prohibited.

I believe the hadiths which report the prophet has prohibited temporary marriage were later additions in order to protect Umar from blame for legislating islamic laws he had no business in.

It’s for this reason the hadiths prohibiting temporary marriage are contradictionary. And why some of the companions continued to practice it well after the prophet’s death. And the reason why Umar did not attribute its prohibition to the prophet
Shi’i authors also point out that 'Umar banned the two kinds of muta together, whereas everyone-Sunnis and Shi’is-agree that the hajj al-mut’a is permissible. Hence the muta pertaining to women should also be permissible
Mut’ah of Hajj is refering to a period during the Hajj where a person doesn’t have to observe the strict Hajj codes, during this time the people can change their clothes and conjugate with their spouces.

In the pre-islamic era, this was considered a sin but the prophet allowed it and it became known as “the pleasure of Hajj”. hence in umar’s speech regarding the prohibition of temporary marriage, he prohibited both mut’ah of women and mut’ah of hajj saying that it was allowed during the prophet’s lifetime but he disallows it.

ofcourse Imam Ali (a) the 4th sunni khalif and the 1st shia Imam objected to both prohibitions, with regards to temporary marriage he says “If Umar had not prohibited, no one would commit the act of adultry except the wreched” and with regards to Mut’ah of Hajj he says “I will not leave the tradition [Sunnah] of the Prophet on the saying of a man ([Umar]”
 
Famdigy thank you for your responses…reading more on this topic, i can see the Shia have got better arguments and even some Sunni agree with them. But why do you think Sunni tradition does not quote any of ahlulbeit’s teachings? and do they have other things they don’t share with you or do you agree on almost everything in their sunna?
 
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