If you believe that “we are all free to disregard Church doctrine and teaching because there’s no need for it: we all know what’s right or wrong for us” then you are probably right that the Church has nothing to offer. But why do you assume this position is valid? That’s precisely what this debate is about. I certainly don’t accept that position, and I reject it precisely because of what such a position implies: the church is not who she says she is and we have no need of her.
Ender
Okay, I’m trying to understand this.
The Bible clearly states the condition of the human heart which seems to go against the law of God being inscribed on man’s heart.
Jeremiah 17:9 “The heart is deceitful above all things and beyond cure. Who can understand it?”
Mat 15:18-19 “But the things which proceed out of the mouth, come forth from the heart, and those things defile a man. For from the heart come forth evil thoughts, murders, adulteries, fornications, thefts, false testimonies, blasphemies.”
1Co 6:9-10 “Know you not that the unjust shall not possess the kingdom of God? Do not err: Neither fornicators nor idolaters nor adulterers, Nor the effeminate nor liers with mankind nor thieves nor covetous nor drunkards nor revilers nor extortioners shall possess the kingdom of God.”
Isaiah 53:6 “All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.”
Rom 3:10 As it is written: **“There is no one righteous, not even one; there is no one who understands; there is no one who seeks God. All have turned away, they have together become worthless; there is no one who does good, not even one.” **
But then the apostle Paul acknowledges that Gentiles have the law written on their hearts (Rom. 2:15). Yes, all men and women have some sense of a moral standard, but the unregenerate do not have God as the basis of their moral standard. Paul’s point in Romans 1:19– 23 is that even if the morality of the unregenerate is religiously motivated, their darkened hearts cause their conception of God and their sense of connection to Him to be distorted.
Ezekiel 36:26–27 is explicit: “And I will give you a new heart, and a new spirit I will put within you. And I will remove the heart of stone from your flesh and give you a heart of flesh. And I will put my Spirit within you, and cause you to walk in my statutes and be careful to obey my rules.”
The metaphor of a “heart of stone” used in Ezekiel 36 and the “hardness of heart” alluded to in Ephesians 4:18
are apt descriptions of the unregenerate condition because they punctuate the inability of the human heart to respond to God and to the things of God — particularly His law. This is what Paul refers to as “dead in the trespasses and sins in which you once walked” in Ephesians 2:1–2. But as promised in Ezekiel, God has “removed the heart of stone” and replaced it with a “heart of flesh.”
A human being must always obey the certain judgment of his conscience" (CCC 1800)
CCC 1792 states the consequences of disobedience: “A human being must always obey the certain judgment of his conscience. If he were deliberately to act against it, he would condemn himself.”
So is seems that it goes against CCC 1800-1792? I’m not that all familiar with CCC. Since no one can obey the law of God until they became Born Again and the stony heart replace with a heart of flesh.
Otherwise woould have this case: if a pro-choice individual believes she is following her conscience and believes that they are doing right. They are committing sin by going against their consciences by being persuaded not to have an abortion and will they not be condemned to hell? Will not those advocating a pro-life be guilty of sin by causing someone to violate their conscience according to CCC if their conscience can never be 'involate" out of “invincible ignorance”?