The 7 books

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The authors of Roman Catholics and Evangelicals Chapter 9, says that the earliest Septuagint may not have the seven deuterocanonical books (same statement was also made by W. Webster). This claim is speculative and cannot be proved unless a manuscript of that period has been found. The available Septuagint manuscripts were produced by Christians but the inclusion of deuterocanonical books in Septuagint has been accepted even by prominent Protestant scholar F.F. Bruce. For comparison, the oldest existing manuscript of Hebrew Bible is that of Dead Sea scrolls; yet it does not include Esther. Thus if they are consistent, they should drop Esther from their Bible. The authors also wrote that no Greek manuscript has the same list with that of Trent, even Codex Vaticanus does not have Maccabees. Yet the difference in (earlier) list is not unexpected because councils at Carthage and Hippo are not ecumenical councils. The later Codex Alexandrinus of 5th century has all four Maccabees. It is worth to mention that the same also applies to New Testament books. There were different versions of New Testament books before and even after fourth century. If they can tolerate them, why they fail to do so for Old Testament canon? They (and also W. Webster) also argue that because the councils held in Hippo and Carthage were not ecumenical councils, then the decision is not binding on the whole church. Quite true, but ironically they have no problem in accepting the list of New Testament books declared by the same councils as binding. They did not realize that before Reformation, the issue of canon of Bible is not an issue that divided Christians. Even during Reformation, cardinal Cajetan of the Catholic Church (Luther’s opponent) did not consider deuterocanonical books as equal to the rest of Old Testament books. It became dividing issue during Reformation which prompted the (ecumenical) council of Trent to declare the limit of both Old and New Testament books. The same authors also said that the apocryphal books are not prophetic books unlike the other 39 books. They don’t bother to mention what kind of prophecy the book of Esther has. Esther and Song of Songs are the two Old Testament books where the name of God is not mentioned at all. They also said that Jewish teachers acknowledged that the prophetic line ended in the fourth century (page 168) in which they quoted supporting statement made by Josephus (in Against Apion) and other Jewish source. Yet it is ridiculous to rely on uncanonical book of non-Christian Josephus and of others to determine the limit of Christian canon. They quoted Rom 3:2 to support the decision of Jamnia council in 70 CE. If that what Paul meant, then why he (and other New Testament writers) quoted from non-biblical source like 2 Tim 3:8, Jude 9 and 14?. On page 171, they made the same mistake as W. Webster by stating that Cyril of Jerusalem and Origen rejected all apocryphal books. They also question why some books like Prayer of Manasseh were not accepted by Council of Trent (page 172). Those books were never accepted by earlier councils in Laodicea, Rome, Hippo and Carthage. In page 173, the authors wrote that the correct view of Canon should be “Church discovers Canon and is Child of Canon”, not “Church determines Canon and is Mother of Canon”. However, if (Catholic) Church discovered Canon then why she never included the Epistle from Laodicean mentioned in Col 4:16 (which Paul treated as equal to that to Colossians) as one book of New Testament? Saying that this epistle is equal to Paul epistle to Ephesians (some of its manuscript do not have “in Ephesus” in Eph 1:1) is speculative and cannot be proved (history shows only heretical Marcion in the second century treated epistle of Ephesian equal to Laodicean). If she is the daughter of Canon, why she existed even before New Testament books were written, which the authors also acknowledged?

In conclusion Catholics accept the authority of the Church, the foundation and pillar of truth (1 Tim 3:15) whom our Lord promised to be protected from gates of hades (Matthew 16:19) to determine the canon of Scripture, both Old and New Testaments.
 
They too are included in the Oracles of God committed to the Jews. They are grouped along with what the Jews have called Kethuvim (writings).
But you said there are no “Writings”. You said they are Psalms.
 
The main reason why Protestants reject deuterocanonical (or apocryphal in their term) books is they support teachings peculiar to Catholic Church, like praying to the dead (2 Mac 12:45-46) and almsgiving for sin expiation (Tobit 12:9). Yet the majority of Jews who do not accept 2 Maccabees still pray to the their dead, a common practice even during Jesus time. Proverb 16:6 says (NIV) that “through love and faithfulness sin is atoned for” which is close to Tobit 12:9. Other common reason is Jesus and New Testament writers never quoted from them. True, but they too never quoted from Esther, Ecclesiastes and Song of Songs. It is also worth to note that Jesus words in John 7:38 quoted from Scripture cannot be found in any Old Testament books (ours or theirs) and so are James 4:5 and Matthew 2:23. Jude 9 and 14 quoted from two books which are not accepted as inspired, Ascension of Moses and Enoch (the latter is accepted by Ethiopian Church as inspired). Indirectly, there are quotations from some deuterocanonical books. For example, pagan immorality in Rom 1:18-32 echoes Wisdom 12-14, and the attitude of Jews criticized by Paul in Rom 2:1-11 has affinities with Wisdom 11-15. The writer of Hebrews might refer to 2 Mac 6:18 to 7:41 when he wrote about torture which some endured through faith (Heb 11:35-38). Thus the non-existence of quotation in New Testament is not the criteria to reject Deuterocanonical books.

In Luke 24:44 Jesus said that He fulfilled prophecies in the Law, the Prophets and Psalms. Does it show that He followed the Hebrew three divisions of Bible (Law, Prophets and Writings)? However Psalms is just one book of the third division which also (in Hebrew division) includes Daniel and this book does have prophecy about Him (Dan 7:13). It is unlikely Jesus forget this fact. Luke 24:44 might even indicate that Jesus placed Daniel as one book of the Prophets or in other word He followed Septuagint division. In other occasions, the Law represents not only 5 books of Moses but also Isaiah (1 Cor 14:21) and Psalms (Rom 3:10-19). It shows that Jesus and others did not follow three fold divisions of Hebrew Bible.

Other common argument is taken from Luke 11:50-51 where Jesus said (NIV): “Therefore this generation will be held responsible for the blood of all the prophets that has been shed since the beginning of the world, from the blood of Abel to the blood of Zechariah who was killed between the altar and the sanctuary.” Since Abel is mentioned in the Genesis (Gen 4:8) and Zechariah in the 2 Chron 24:20-22, those two being the first and the last books according to Hebrew division, does it show that Jesus recognized the Hebrew Bible? However, parallel verse in Matthew 23:35 says that Zechariah was son of Barachiah, while Zechariah in 2 Chron 24:20-22 was son of Jehoiada, thus they are unlikely to be the same person. Protestant scholar, F.F. Bruce acknowledged this problem but still insisted that they are the same person.

Anti Catholic writer, Boettner wrote about the deuterocanonical books that none of the writers claim inspiration for their works, and some explicitly disclaim it. Yet the same also applies to most of books of the Bible. Most of them do not explicitly claim inspiration. He also pointed some historical errors like Nebuchadnezzar is called as king of Assyrians (Judith 1:1-7), while actually he is king of Babylon. In answer, the book is not historical book so Judith was not a historical character (her name means Jewess) and by combining Assyrians and Babylonians together, it represents the enemies of Israel (both kingdoms conquered Israel) and encourages the reader to rely on God’s way of deliverance, even through a unreliable way to human standard (i.e. through a woman).
Wow, that was a lot of reading. Well… we can agree to disagree on this matter. Jesus named it and Paul said the Jews have the Oracles. I have to believe the Bible first before man’s take on history. Again, to add the 7 books is to contradict Romans 3:2. The Jews would not have the Oracles. That would contradict the Word of God.
 
Wow, that was a lot of reading. Well… we can agree to disagree on this matter. Jesus named it and Paul said the Jews have the Oracles. I have to believe the Bible first before man’s take on history. Again, to add the 7 books is to contradict Romans 3:2. The Jews would not have the Oracles. That would contradict the Word of God.
No it doesn’t contradict Roman 3:2, Much in every way. To begin with, the Jews are entrusted with the oracles of God. (Timeline 57-58 AD)

Paul refers to the entire Scripture, my Christian friend. This include the Septuagint.

The Jews did not reject the Septuagint until 90 A.D.

2 Tim 3:16-17 states,

All scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work. 66-67 AD.

Council of Jamnia, Jews reject the Septuagint in 90 A.D. If you don’t believe the Septuagint as inspire written word of God, then you just contradicted 2 Tim 3:16-17.
 
Bingo! And if they have the “Writings,” then the Deuterocanonical books are in.
Nope, the Jewish Canon does not include the 7 books. They rejected them as Writings. Their books are the exact same books as the Protestants Old Testament.

Again… no apocrypha in the Oracles of God.
 
No it doesn’t contradict Roman 3:2, Much in every way. To begin with, the Jews are entrusted with the oracles of God. (Timeline 57-58 AD)

Paul refers to the entire Scripture, my Christian friend. This include the Septuagint.

The Jews did not reject the Septuagint until 90 A.D.

2 Tim 3:16-17 states,

All scripture is inspired by God and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, that the man of God may be complete, equipped for every good work. 66-67 AD.

Council of Jamnia, Jews reject the Septuagint in 90 A.D. If you don’t believe the Septuagint as inspire written word of God, then you just contradicted 2 Tim 3:16-17.
Yes, but you can’t prove the 7 books are included in the scriptures aside from saying that your church says so.
 
Nope, the Jewish Canon does not include the 7 books. They rejected them as Writings. Their books are the exact same books as the Protestants Old Testament.

Again… no apocrypha in the Oracles of God.
No. The Jews rejected them in the Council of Jamnia in 90 A.D.

If you look at the dates I posted, then you just contradicted yourself. Why do you not accept these truths as historical fact? Are you historically blind not to acknowledge the truth?
 
No. The Jews rejected them in the Council of Jamnia in 90 A.D.

If you look at the dates I posted, then you just contradicted yourself. Why do you not accept these truths as historical fact? Are you historically blind not to acknowledge the truth?
I do not need to look at the dates. That is Christian history according to man.
 
I just did.

Read this link to give how the Bible was made.

mafg.home.isp-direct.com/bible02.htm

Sometimes I don’t think you actually read them because you are afraid to look at Christian history.
No, you’ve chosen to put your trust in “history”. There’s only one truth and that’s the Word of God. It can be trusted. Man’s history cannot be trusted.

Notice here how it say all scripture and not Christian history.

2Ti 3:16 All scripture [is] given by inspiration of God, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
 
This is taken from the

Encyclopedia Judaica, Vol 6, p 1147 Jewish resource
The next major piece of evidence to be noted is the Council of Jamnia, which seems to have taken place around 90 AD. This council established and closed the canon authoritatively for nearly all Jews. It has been their canon ever since. Yet it should be noted that the council did not speak for all Jews, there were Jews living in Ethiopia who either did not hear of it or did not accept the decision of Jamnia. To this day they use a different canon than their Palestinian brethren
 
Whenever the subject of the Deutorcanonicals comes up there is always one statement that is made:

“The Jews don’t recognize them as inspired by God.”

But like all things Satan only wants you to know part of the truth. He keeps the rest concealed and builds upon the one truth.

So where do people get the idea that Jews don’t believe they are inspired by God? Because that is what they been told. The source of the truth is hardly ever disclosed to average Christian. So what is the source? The Jamnia Council(Synod).

Council of Jamnia occurred around 92 AD. They made at least 5 Judgements that we know of against Christians.

A. Jesus is not the promised Messiah
B. Made the distinction between Jews and Heretics(Christians)
C. Expelled Christians from the Synagogues
D. They redefined Canon of the Tanach
Code:
 They set up 4 criteria that all books had to meet in order to be included. 

 1. The books had to conform to the Pentateuch (the first 5 books). 
 2. The books had to be written in Hebrew. 
 3. The books had to be written in Palestine.
 4. The books had to be written before 400 B.C..  

Baruch was not written in Palestine. Disqualified by reason 3.
Sirach and 1Maccabees were written after 400 B.C.. Disqualified by reason 4.
Tobit and parts of Daniel and Esther were written in Aramaic and outside of Palestine. 
Disqualified by reasons 2 and 3.
Judith was written in Aramaic. Disqualified by reason 2.
Wisdom was written in Greek. Disqualified by reason 2.
2Maccabees was written after 400 B.C. and in Greek. Disqualified by reasons 2 and 4.
New Testament disqualified by reason 2 and 4.
E: They added to their daily blessings which all Jews are required to read everyday this curse of Christians:

Officially called the “Birkat ha-minim”

“For the Apostates let there be no hope and the arrogant government be speedily uprooted in our days, Let the Nazarenes(Christians)and the minim(Heretics) be destroyed in a moment. Let them be blotted out of the Book of Life and not inscribled together with the Righteous. Blessed art thou oh Lord, who humblest the Proud.”

Why did the Jews do this?

The Temple was completely destroyed in 70 AD.
All the Priests were killed.
They were fearful that Christianity would overtake them.
They wanted to remove references that would be useful to Christians.

Prior to the birth of Christ, the Canon of the Tanach was the Alexandrian Canon a.k.a the Septuagint.
 
Then how did you get the NT 27 books in the Bible? Who said they were inspired?
I believe that we received the Bible by a sovereign God who is all powerful and all knowing without limits not bound by space or time. God gave us the Bible. He alone preserved the Word and orchestrated its distribution.
 
Whenever the subject of the Deutorcanonicals comes up there is always one statement that is made:

“The Jews don’t recognize them as inspired by God.”

But like all things Satan only wants you to know part of the truth. He keeps the rest concealed and builds upon the one truth.

So where do people get the idea that Jews don’t believe they are inspired by God? Because that is what they been told. The source of the truth is hardly ever disclosed to average Christian. So what is the source? The Jamnia Council(Synod).

Council of Jamnia occurred around 92 AD. They made at least 5 Judgements that we know of against Christians.

A. Jesus is not the promised Messiah
B. Made the distinction between Jews and Heretics(Christians)
C. Expelled Christians from the Synagogues
D. They redefined Canon of the Tanach
Code:
 They set up 4 criteria that all books had to meet in order to be included. 

 1. The books had to conform to the Pentateuch (the first 5 books). 
 2. The books had to be written in Hebrew. 
 3. The books had to be written in Palestine.
 4. The books had to be written before 400 B.C..  

Baruch was not written in Palestine. Disqualified by reason 3.
Sirach and 1Maccabees were written after 400 B.C.. Disqualified by reason 4.
Tobit and parts of Daniel and Esther were written in Aramaic and outside of Palestine. 
Disqualified by reasons 2 and 3.
Judith was written in Aramaic. Disqualified by reason 2.
Wisdom was written in Greek. Disqualified by reason 2.
2Maccabees was written after 400 B.C. and in Greek. Disqualified by reasons 2 and 4.
New Testament disqualified by reason 2 and 4.
E: They added to their daily blessings which all Jews are required to read everyday this curse of Christians:

Officially called the “Birkat ha-minim”

“For the Apostates let there be no hope and the arrogant government be speedily uprooted in our days, Let the Nazarenes(Christians)and the minim(Heretics) be destroyed in a moment. Let them be blotted out of the Book of Life and not inscribled together with the Righteous. Blessed art thou oh Lord, who humblest the Proud.”

Why did the Jews do this?

The Temple was completely destroyed in 70 AD.
All the Priests were killed.
They were fearful that Christianity would overtake them.
They wanted to remove references that would be useful to Christians.

Prior to the birth of Christ, the Canon of the Tanach was the Alexandrian Canon a.k.a the Septuagint.
But again, this is just man’s history. Man cannot be trusted. Unless you were there, you don’t know for sure.
 
No, you’ve chosen to put your trust in “history”. There’s only one truth and that’s the Word of God. It can be trusted. Man’s history cannot be trusted.

Notice here how it say all scripture and not Christian history.

2Ti 3:16 All scripture [is] given by inspiration of God, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
Paul you know converted many Greeks to Christianity? He even spoke to Helenistic Jews outside of Palestine. These Greek Speaking Jews only have one Scripture, the Septuagint which is written in Greek.

So if you claim the Septuagint is not the inspired Word of God, you are again contradicting, 2 Tim 3:16-17.

We know the Septuagint is written around 285 to 247 B.C. So you basically still contradict 2 Tim 3:16-17.
 
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