Generally speaking that is correct. On the other hand 100% correlation DOES imply causation. Or do you deny that the “correlation” between the motion of my leg muscles and my walking is without “causative” relationship? Is it simply a lucky coincidence that every time I undertake a “walk”, my leg muscles also “happen” to move in a specific way? And every time I move my leg muscles in a certain fashion I actually DO walk?
The point is that the brain and the mind cannot be separated. There is no mind without a brain. Just like without legs there can be no “walking”.
Of course you are welcome to show even a weak correlation between a “soul” and the “mind”. Take a brainless “person” and provide evidence for his “active, working mind - contingent upon his soul”. And then bring up some evidence that this “soul” is immortal. Why don’t you attempt it?
You are begging the question by assuming that mind is essentially biochemical. The point being that your body moves by intentions and even if those intentions correlate 100% to biochemical or neurochemical events, that fact does not necessitate the implication that intentions are merely the effects of biochemical causes. You merely assume they are and thus beg the question concerning which has priority over the other. Even if they occurred simultaneously, you have no case for assuming the material causes or controls the mental or that the material has some kind of precedence or superintendence over the mental.
It may, in fact, be that the material merely constrains or limits the mental by tethering the mental to specific “nodes” of sensory reality, i.e., that what we mean by “material” is merely a set of constraints or limitations placed upon what is otherwise potentially capable of far more than those constraints permit.
To use a crude example, if a horse is tethered or harnessed to a cart, every move of the horse has a one-to-one correspondence to some move or vibration of the cart. That does not imply the horse could not be detached from the cart and run without the cart. Merely because the cart stays motionless after the cart is detached from the horse does not prove the horse has died, does it? This is particularly true since in the case of the body tethered to the soul, we have only the body (i.e., the cart) that we can observe, so we can’t determine the state of the horse (soul) from the loss of mobility by the cart (body.) You wouldn’t claim that we know the horse must have died because the cart no longer moves, would you? Yet that is basically your claim with reference to the human body and the soul.
Even assuming mind-body duality – which I don’t think is necessarily true – you haven’t shown what you suppose you have.
You certainly haven’t shown with any kind of logical rigor that the mental reduces to the purely physical (horseless carriage?) or that the material is the basic ground of all existence, which is what you would need to do to prove your case, since introspection is, for most human beings a reality. In fact, that – the mind reduces to the purely physical – is precisely what you do need to do to prove with anything like epistemic certainty that the soul or mind could not live on past bodily death or be immortal.
You certainly cannot just assume you have made your case by the mere fact that mental events have a one-to-one correlation to neurochemical events. Your “
100% correlation DOES imply causation” claim is a bogus one. It might have some superficial rhetorical effect for those wont to persuasion by superficial treatment of the topic, but for someone, like you, who purportedly strives to accept nothing less than “epistemic certainty,” this comes no where even close.
There are all kinds of reasons for thinking the soul could live on past bodily death. It is an open question and trying to solve that vexing question using a bit of rhetorical flourish is just a tad disingenuous to the entire issue.