BartholomewB
Member
Yesterday I came across an old note from a couple of years ago, when I was reading the OT in the Revised New Jerusalem Bible. It has to do with an apparent discontiuity between the OT and the NT on the subject of the afterlife. The RNJB is translated by Dom Henry Wansbrough, a British Benedictine who is widely esteemed for his Biblical scholarship. In his translation, Macc 7:9 reads:
“You set us free from this present life but the king of the world will raise us up to an everlasting renewal of life, since we are dying for his laws.”
To this verse Wansbrough attaches an unusually long footnote, in which he explains:
A significant advance in belief in the afterlife, toward which Is 25:8, Ho 13:14, and perhaps Job 19:26-27, have been tending. Although written in Greek, this assertion accords with Hebrew anthropology, expressing the resurrection of the martyr and a continued life of the whole person, “ever-flowing life,” v. 36, not merely immortality of the soul, as in the Greek tradition, Wis 3:4. For the wicked there is no resurrection to new life, v. 14, contrast Dan 12:2, which teaches a resurrection also for the unjust.
A separate post will give the full text of each of the seven verses that Wansbrough is referencing in this footnote.
Catholic teaching about the afterlife is stated clearly and unambiguously in the CCC, in paragraph 366:
The Church teaches that every spiritual soul is created immediately by God — it is not "produced" by the parents —- and also that it is immortal: it does not perish when it separates from the body at death, and it will be reunited with the body at the final Resurrection.
This Catholic teaching is, needless to say, in full agreement with everything that we read on the subject in the NT, particularly in the teaching of Jesus himself.
Now, if Wansbrough is correct about this difference between the Hebrew and Greek accounts of the afterlife, that would seem to imply that the Catholic teaching — and Jesus’ teaching, too — about the afterlife is of Greek, not Hebrew, origin. So where does that leave the continuity between the OT and the NT? I don’t think it can be enough to say that the authors of the NT books were more familiar with the Greek text of the Septuagint than they were with the original Hebrew scriptures, a consideration that emerges from the wording of the OT quotations and allusions found in the Gospels and the Epistles alike. Any ideas?
“You set us free from this present life but the king of the world will raise us up to an everlasting renewal of life, since we are dying for his laws.”
To this verse Wansbrough attaches an unusually long footnote, in which he explains:
A significant advance in belief in the afterlife, toward which Is 25:8, Ho 13:14, and perhaps Job 19:26-27, have been tending. Although written in Greek, this assertion accords with Hebrew anthropology, expressing the resurrection of the martyr and a continued life of the whole person, “ever-flowing life,” v. 36, not merely immortality of the soul, as in the Greek tradition, Wis 3:4. For the wicked there is no resurrection to new life, v. 14, contrast Dan 12:2, which teaches a resurrection also for the unjust.
A separate post will give the full text of each of the seven verses that Wansbrough is referencing in this footnote.
Catholic teaching about the afterlife is stated clearly and unambiguously in the CCC, in paragraph 366:
The Church teaches that every spiritual soul is created immediately by God — it is not "produced" by the parents —- and also that it is immortal: it does not perish when it separates from the body at death, and it will be reunited with the body at the final Resurrection.
This Catholic teaching is, needless to say, in full agreement with everything that we read on the subject in the NT, particularly in the teaching of Jesus himself.
Now, if Wansbrough is correct about this difference between the Hebrew and Greek accounts of the afterlife, that would seem to imply that the Catholic teaching — and Jesus’ teaching, too — about the afterlife is of Greek, not Hebrew, origin. So where does that leave the continuity between the OT and the NT? I don’t think it can be enough to say that the authors of the NT books were more familiar with the Greek text of the Septuagint than they were with the original Hebrew scriptures, a consideration that emerges from the wording of the OT quotations and allusions found in the Gospels and the Epistles alike. Any ideas?
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