The bible and homosexuals

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Absalom!:
If people are gay and don’t want to give up their practices, fine. They should be loved just the same . . . but they’re only kidding themselves if they want to make the Bible say that homosexuality is okay. The passage from Romans should be enough to demonstrate that. People always focus on the Old Testament to make a smokescreen.
**## People can hardly be blamed for denying that OT passages are convincing arguments against homosexuality when those who regard it as bad quote the OT in support of their position. **

**There is no “smokescreen” here, just an answering of objections - usually from two passages on Leviticus. **

As the SCDF quotes OT as well as NT passages in its 1986 Letter, it’s not unreasonable that those who take issue with the relevance of those passages should comment on them. ##
 
I was answering an argument myself, which is that homosexuality is okay because Christ did away with the Old Law homosexual practices are morally permissible. That argument is the one that I was calling smokescreen. My point is that if you believe that the New Testament is the infallible word of God, then you have to run a* lot* of circles to say that homosexuality is morally permissible.

If people want to question the relevance of passages from Leviticus, okay, fine, but if we are talking about Bible-believing Christians here and we all agree that the letter to the Romans is the word of God, then isn’t it a bit irrelevant to question the relevance of something from Leviticus? What I was talking about was whether the Bible (meaning OT + NT) says that homosexuality is okay or not okay.
 
A good argument can be made that the death sentences in the Books of Moses are a “game” of sorts. Many, many things generated death sentences, including gathering sticks on the Sabbath! See Numbers 15:32-35. In other words, there was a recognition even in Mosaic times among the Hebrews that it was so difficult to NOT earn a death sentence, very, very, very few were ever executed. So, in John 8, when the adulteress is brought to Jesus so that He can stone her, His answer – “Let he who has not sinned cast the first stone” – is not a new argument, but rather AN INVOCATION OF THE LOGIC ALREADY BUILT INTO THE LAW OF MOSES. In other words, the logic of the Law of Moses, intended by God to be implicit in the Law of Moses, was, “So much earns a death sentence or other incredibly severe sentence, that if you’re dumb enough to demand the death penalty, then, buster, prepare to die, if you’ve done anything worse than pick your nose!”

Bottom line: The teaching of the Law of Moses, that homosexual intercourse is evil, remains valid, but the SENTENCE for the evil act, the death sentence, was rarely imposed even in Mosaic times.

Jesus DOES implicitly condemn homosexual acts, but very, very gently. In Matthew 19:12, Jesus argues that it is fair for God to demand that divorced people “keep their pants on” and not have sex with anyone by functionally arguing, “Look, guys, we all agree here that it’s fair for God to demand no sexual activity among soldiers or navy personnel or prisoners (‘some who have been diliberately made so’ – ‘made eunuchs’ by their circumstances); and it’s fair for God to demand no sexual activity among celibate monks like the Essenes (‘some there are who have freely renounced sex for the sake of God’s reign’)…”

One other category of celibate whose voluntary celibacy Christ uses as a case which establishes that it is fair for God to demand that divorced “keep their pants on” are “some men…incapable of sexual activity from birth.”

What is he referring to?

Some Bible commentatoras argue that this refers to birth defects in the sex organs.

However, that interpretation is CLEARLY wrong. If someone with a birth defect in his genital region CAN’T have sex, then he’s not celibate because God EXPECTS HIM to be celibate. Instead he is celibate because he CAN’T have sex – in other words, the argument doesn’t work. That interpretation has Christ using a poor example, which shoots Christ’s Own argument in the foot, of why divorced folks should keep their pants on.

What interpretation makes Christ’s argument work?

THIS interpretation: If those who are “some men…incapable of sexual activity from birth” refers to those pre-wired at birth to be inclined to homosexual behavior, as to whom Christ and His listeners take it for granted that homosexual acts are immoral.
 
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