Perhaps lost in all of this argumentation is a search for the truth. Case in point: the 66 book “canon” leaves an inexplicable gap in scripture during the time leading directly to the advent of our Lord Jesus Christ. This just strikes me as strange. Those two centuries laid much of the groundwork for the greatest movement of God since creation - the Incarnation of His only Son. Would God really fail to inspire any writings in that period of time - a time designed both as a preparation for and introduction of the Savior of the world - a time in which the new and eternal covenant would be instituted?
In recent centuries, the protestant phrase “Intertestamental period” has been devised to name those two alleged scripture-less pre-Christian centuries. It may name them, but cannot explain them. Frankly, there is no explanation for the the Lord’s alleged silence - it is not in prophecy. Have a look at this protestant
bible time line. Notice that the two centuries leading up to Christ are devoid of scriptural coverage. Does that seem right?
The Deuterocanonical books of
1&2 Maccabees, Tobit, Judith, Baruch, Wisdom and
Sirach (ever read Sirach? Amazing stuff) were written in this precise time frame. Let’s consider only the books of
1&2 Maccabees. Man’s
resurrection is mentioned three times in
2 Maccabees - the first appearance in all of scripture.
Eternal life is mentioned for the first time in all of scripture in
2 Maccabees. This was written in the time in which reformers claim God was silent. If God was silent, then just where did the concepts of the resurrection and eternal life come from? Christ was not yet incarnate.
Are those the Catholic doctrines that “reformers” were suspicious of? I hope not!
We also know that Jesus had to be born under the Mosaic Law, in order to fulfill that law, correct? From the timeline website: That timeline shows that the books of Song of songs, Eccelsiastes, and the Psalms stopped at that point, since Judaism was banned. How could our Lord then be born under the law so as to fulfill it?
From the 66 book protestant bible, there is no answer for this and we have not the slightest clue. Let’s go back to the Deuterocanon books of
1&2 Maccabees. They tell of the Maccabean revolt against the oppressive Selucid empire, which maintained the ban on the Mosaic Law. Judas Maccabeus, in particular, was stunningly effective in fighting against overwhelming odds in the restoration of Jewish rule over Jerusalem and Judah. Restoration of the Law in time for Christ to be born and raised under the law so as to fulfill it. There is a Jewish holy day that came about by the victory of the Maccabean revolt:
Hannukkah. Ever hear of it? The feast of lights - the rededication of the Temple in Jerusalem. Preparation for the
Light of the World soon to come.
On a purely doctrinal level, the resurrection to eternal life is critically important. From a purely historical standpoint, the restoration of the Mosaic law and the rededication of the Temple in Jerusalem are critically important. Neither is mentioned in the 66 book bible.
Now, one is certainly free to persist in declaring that the books of the Maccabees are not inspired. But, think about this: In doing so, have you just declared that the resurrection and eternal life - written about for the first time in scripture and in the time immediately leading up to Christ, as well as the restoration of the Mosaic Law and the Temple to Israel - to be not of God?
Like the bible, our Lord has a back story. Neither He, nor the bible just fell out of the sky.